Tuesday, 27 January 2015

AIPMT Chemistry Question Papers 2015

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AIPMT Chemistry Question Papers 2015 - All candidates can download here Chemistry sample papers for examination to All India Pre-Medical Pre-Dental Entrance Test - 2015 for admission to MBBS and BDS programmes for the academic session 2015-16. The entrance examination will be held on May 3, 2015.

We have presented question papers in different set's. All these question will help you for a better exam preparation.

The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.  For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be  deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

206. A 63-year-old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm3. The flowcytometery showed CD 19 positive, CD5 positive, DC 23 negative, monoclonal Bcells with bright kappa positivity comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Mantle cell lymphoma.
2. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes.
3. Follicular lymphoma.
4. Hairy cellleukemia.

207. Memory T cells can be identified by using the following marker:
1. CD45 RA.
2. CD45 RB.
3. CD45RC.
4. CD45RO.
Ans. 4

208. All of the following statements about NK cells are true. except:
1. They are derived from large granular cells.
2. They comprise about 5% of human peripheral lymphoid cells.
3. They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells
4. They express lgG Fc receptors.
Ans. 3

209. Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary artery disease:
1. Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia.
2. Von will Brandt's disease.
3. Nephritic syndrome.
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus.

210. MHC class 3 Genes Encode;
1. Complement Component C3
2. Tumor necrosis factor.
3. Interleukin 2.
4. Beta 2 microglobulin. 
Ans. 2

211. The HLA class 3 rejection genes are important elements in :
1. Transplant rejection phenomenon.
2. Governing susceptibility of autoimmune diseases.
3. Immune surveillance.
4. Antigen presentaion and elimination.
Ans 2

212. Gluten sensitve enteropthy is most strongly associated with:
1. HLA-DQ2
2. HLA-DQ4
3. HLA-DQ3
4. Blood group 'B'
Ans. 1

213. Most sensitve and specific test ofr diagnosis of iron efficiency is :
1. Serum iron levels.
2. Serum ferrition levels.
3. Serum transferring receptor population :
4. Transferrin saturation.
Ans. 2

214. All the statrment about lactoferrin are true, except:
1. It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil
2. It is present in exocrine secretios of body.
3. It has great affinity for iron.
4. It transports iron for erythropoiesis.

215. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemias, except:
1. Age more than 60 years.
2. Leucocyte count more than 1,000,000/ul.
3. Secondary leukenias.
4. presence of t (8:21)

216. Leukoelrythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following except:
1. Myelofibrois.
2. Metastatic careinoma.
3. Gaucher's disease.
4. Thalassemia.

217. Vortex vein invasion is commonly seen in:
1. Retinoblastoma.
2. Malignant melanoma.
3. Optic nerve gliomas.
4. Medullo-epitheliomas.
Ans. 2 (or 1?)

218. Hereditary retinoblastomas develop the following choromosomal deletion:
1. 13q 14
2. 13p14
3. 14p13
4. 14q13

219. All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensicve emergencies except:
1. Fenoldopam.
2. Urapidil
3. Enalpril
4. Nifedipine.
Ans. 4

220. Porphobilinogen in urine produces pink color with:
1. Fouchet's reagent.
2. Benedict's reagent.
3. Sodium nitropruside.
4. Ehrlich's aldehyde reagent.
Ans. 4

221. Cardiac output measured by thermodilution technique is unreliable in all of the following situations except:
1. Ventricular septal defect.
2. Tricuspid regurgitation.
3. Low cardiac output
4. Pumonary regugitation

222. Exercise testing is absolutely contraindicated in which one week following :
1.One week following myocardial infarction
2. Unstable angina.
3. Aortic stenosis
4. peripheral vascular dicase.
Ans. 3

223. Osteomatacia is associated with:
1. Decrease in osteoid volume.
2. Derease in osteoid surface.
3. increase in osteoid maturiaton time
4. Increase in mineral apposition rate.

224. A nineteen year old female with short stature wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhoea most likely has a karyotype of :
1. 47, XX +18
2. 46,XXY
3. 47,XXY
4. 45X.
Ans. 4

225. Which of the following procedures are wsed as routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy ?
1. C- banding
2. G- banding
3. Q- banding
4. B-rd V- staning

226 A 23- year old woman has experience episod of myalgias, pleural effusion, peicarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test to diagnose her disease would be:
1. CD4 Lymphocyte count.
2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
3. Antinuclear antibody.
4. Assay for thyroid hormones.
Ans. 3

227. A5-year old boy is detected to be HBs A g positive in two separte occasions during a screening program for hepatitis B He is otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given 3 doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at the age of one year. His mother was treated for chronic hepatitis B infection around the same time The next relevant step for further investigating the child ould be to:
1. Obtain Hbe antibodies.
2. obtain anti - HBs levels.
3. Repeat HBs Ag
4. Repeat antother cours of hepatitis B vaccine.
Ans. 1

228. Which of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission:
1. Hepatitis E virus.
2. Hepatitis C virus.
3. Hepatitis B virus.
4. Hepatitis A virus.
Ans. 3

229.The diffusion capacity of lung (DL CO)is decreased in all of the following conditions except:
1. Interstitial lung disease.
2. Goodpastur's syndrome.
3. Emphysema.
4. primary pulmonary hypertension.

230.Osler;s nodes are typically seen in which one of the follwing :
1. chronic candida endocarditis.
2. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis
3. pseuduomonas endocarditis.
4. Libman sack's endocarditis.
Ans. 2

231. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except:
1. Food faddist.
2. Homocstinemia
3. Chronic alcoholic.
4. chronic heart failure patient on diuretics.

232 . During cardiopulmonary resusitaton intravenous calcium glouconate is indicated under all for the follwing circumstances except:
1. After I min. of arrest routinely.
2. Hypocalcemia
3. Calcium channel blocker toxicity
4. Electromechanical dissociaton.

233. Radiaton exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma :
1. Breast.
2. Melanoma.
3. Thyroid.
4. Lung.

234. The induction agent of choice in day care anaesthesia is :
1. Sevoflurane.
2. Ketamine .
3. propofol.
4. Methohexitone .

235. Bostentan is a:
1. Serotonin uptake injibitor.
2. Endothelin receptor antagonist.
3. Leukotriene modifier.
4. Calciuim sensitizer.
Ans. 2

236. Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been patho-physiologically linked to which of the following factors :
1. Antivodies to thrombolytic agents
2. fibrinopeptide A
3. Lipoprotein (a) [LP(a)]
4. Triglycerides.
Ans. 3

237 The middle cardiac vein is locted at the
1. Anterior interventricular sulcus.
2. Posterior interventricular sulcus.
3. Posterior AV groove.
4. Anterior AV groove
Ans. 2

238. Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppeession is :
1. Ketamine
2. Etomidate.
3. propofol.
4. Thiopentone

239 Which of the following statements is true about the autonomic nerves system
1. The sympathetic outflow the CNS is through both the cranial nerves and the sympathetic chain
2. The parasympathetic outflow from the CNS is through cranial nerves only
3. The superior hypogastric plexus is located at the anterior aspect of the aortic befrucation and fifth lumbar vertebra.
4. The superir hypogastric plexus contains sympathetic fibers only.

240. Which of the following is pan - T laymphocyte marier?
1. CD 2.
2. CD 3.
3. CD 19.
4. CD 25.

247. A 55- year -old woman has recurrent urinary retention after a hysterectomy done for huge fibroid. The most likely cause is:
1. Atrophic and stenotic urethra.
2. Lumbar disc prolapse.
3. Injury to the bladder neck.
4. Injury to the hypogastric plexi.

248. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between the two cells are called:
1. Gap junctions.
2. Tight junctions.
3. Anchoring junctions.
4. Focal junctions.

249. The collagen triple helix structure is not found in :
1. Cytoplasm.
2. Golgi apparatus.
3. Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum.
4. Intracellular vesicles.
Ans 1

250. Restriction fragment length polymophism is used for:
1. Analysis of chromosome structure.
2. DNA estimation.
3. Synthesis of nucleic acid.
4. Detecting proteins in a cell.
Ans 1

251. Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing lulteinizing hormone surge is associated with one of the follwing steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation:
1. High estrogen: low progesterone.
2. Low estrogen: high progesterone.
3. Low estrogen: low progesterone.
4. High estrogen: high progesterone.

252. All of the following are impulse control disorders except;
1. Pyromania.
2. Trichotillomania.
3. Kleptomania.
4. Capgras' sydrome.

253. A 20- year-old man has presented with increased alcohol consumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack of sleep, and not feeling fatigued even on prolonged periods of activity. Activity. All these changes have beenpresent for 3 weeks . The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Alcohol dependence.
2. Schizophrenia.
3. Mania.
4. Impulsive control disorder .

254. An alcoholic is brought to the Emergency OPD with the complaint of irrelevant talking. He had stopped using alcohol three days back. On examination, he is found to be disoriented to time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. 'There is no history of head injury. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Dementia praecox.
2. Delirium tremens.
3. Schizophrenia.
4. Korsakoff's psychosis.

255. A 41 year lod married female presented with headacje for the last six month . she had several consultations. All her investigatons were found to be within normal limits. She still insists that threr is something wrong in her head and seeks another consulatatin. The most likel diagnosis is :
1. Phobia .
2. Psychogenic headache.
3. Hypochondriasis Depression.
4. Depression

256. Behaviour therapy to change maladaptive behaviors using reponse as reinforcer uses the principles of :
1. Classical conditioning
2. Moneling.
3. Social learning.
4. Operant conditioning.

257. A 15 year old boy feels that the dirt has hung onto him whenever he passes through the dirty street. This repetitive thought causes much distress and anxiety. He knows that there is actually no such thing after he has cleaned once but he is not satisfied and is compelled to think so. This has led to social withdrawal. He spends much of his time thinking about the dirt and contamination. This has affected his studies also. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Obsessive compulsive disorder.
2. Conduct disorder.
3. Agoraphobia.
4. Adjustment disorder.

258. A 50 year old man has presented with pain in back, lack of interest in recreational activities. Low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two months. There was no history suggestive of delusions or hallucination. He did not suffer from any chronic medical illness. There was no family history of psychiatric illness. Routine investigations including hacmogram, renal function tests, liver function tests, electrocardiogram did not reveal any abnormality. This patient sould be treated with:
2. Sertraline.
3. Alprazolarn.
4. Olanzapine.

259. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in an child does not occur in:
1. Rickets.
2. Lead poisoning.
3. Metaphyseal dysplasia.
4. Hypophosphatasia.

260. A classical expansive lytic lesion in the transverse process of a vertebra is seen in:
1. Osteosarcoma.
2. Aneurysmal bone cyst.
3. Osteoblastoma.
4. Metastasis.
Ans. 2

261. CT scan of a patient with history of head injury shows a biconvex hyperdense lesion displacing the grey-white matter interface. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Subdural hematoma.
2. Diffuse axonal injury.
3. Extradural hematoma.
4. Hemorrhagic contusion.

262. Which of the following is the best choice to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?
1. CT scan.
2. MRI.
3. Angiography
4. Myelography.
Ans. 2

263. Most suitable radioisotope of iodine for treating hyperthyroidism is:
1. I 123
2. I 125
3. I 131
4. I 132

264. In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is re-absorbed which part of the nephron:
1. Proximal tubule.
2. Distal tubule.
3. Loop of Henle.
4. Collecting duct.

265. A one-year-old child having leucocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve:
1. Enucleation.
2. Chemotherapy followed by local dyes.
3. Direct Laser ablation using photo dynamic cryotherapy.
4. Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy.

266. A child has got a congenital catract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated.
1. Immediately.
2. At 2 months of age.
3. At 1 year of age when the globe becomes normal sized.
4. After 4 year when entire ocular and orbital growth become normal.

267. A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All the following things are suitable for performing LASIK except:
1. Myopia of 4 Diopters.
2. Age of 15 years.
3. Stable refraction for 1 year.
4. Corneal thickness of 600 microns.

268. Fasanella Servat operation is specififcally indicated in:
1 Congenital ptosis.
2. Steroid induced ptosis.
3. Myasthenia gravis.
4. Horner's syndrome.
Ans. 1

269. The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors is indicated in:
1. Senile ectropion.
2. Senile entropion.
3. Cicatricial entropion.
4. Paralytic entropion.
Ans. 2

270. Which of the following lasers is used for treatment of bening prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi?
1. CO2 laser.
2. Excimer laser.
3. Ho: YAG laser.
4. Nd: YAG laser.
Ans. 3

271. A 65-year-old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Carcinoma urinary bladder.
2. Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
3. Carcinoma prostate.
4. Cystolithiasis.

272. A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydrouretero-nephrosis is best treated with:
1. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy.
2. Antegrade percutaneous access.
3. Open ureterolithotomy.
4. Ureteroscopic retrieval.

273. Semen analysis of a young man who presented with primay infertility revealed low volume, fructose negative ejaculate with azoospermia. Which of the following is the most useful imaging modality to evaluate the cause of his infertility?
1. Colour duplex ultrasonography of the scrotum.
2. Transrectal ultrasonography.
3. Retrograde urethrography.
4. Spermatic venography.

274. An eight-year-old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorso-lumbar vertrbra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnoisi is:
1. Ewing's sarcoma.
2. Tuberculosis.
3. Histiocytosis.
4. Metastasis.
Ans. 4

275. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason:
1. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in relatively well perfused tisseues such as brain and heart.
2. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure.
3. There is a sudden out-burst of release of adreneline, noradreneline and dopamine in brain and heart.
4. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver.

276. A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulses paradoxus at the 4th post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is .
1.Excessive mediastinal bleeding.
2. Ventricular dysfunction.
3. Congestive cardiac failure.
4. Cardiac tamponade.

277. A 70 year old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transurethral resection of prostate under spinal anaesthersia. One hour later, he developed vomiting and altered sensorium. The most probable sause is:
1. Over dosage of spinal anaesthetic agent.
2. Rupture of bladder.
3. Hyperkalemia.
4. Water intoxication
Ans. 4

278. Kinebock's disease is due to avascular necrosis of:
1. Femoral neck.
2. Medial cuneiform bone.
3. Lunate bone.
4. Scaphoid bone.
Ans. 3

279. A 50-year old male. Working as a hotel cook, has four dependent family members. He has been diagnosed with an early stage squamous cell cancer of anal canal. He has more than 60% chances of cure. The best treatment option is:
1. Abdomino-perineal resection.
2. Combined surgery and radiotherapy.
3. Combined chemotherapy and radiotherapy.
4. Chemotherapy alone.
Ans. 3

280. Which one of the following radio-isotopes is commonly used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the treatment of cancer patients:
1. Strontium-89.
2. Radium-226.
3. Cobalt-59.
4. Cobalt-60.

281. All of the following statements are correct about potassium balance, except:
1. Most of potassium is intracellular.
2. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle.
3. Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space in response to severe injury.
4. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment.
Ans. 4

282. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except:
1. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region.
2. Hyperactive tendon reflexes.
3. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG.
4. Carpopedal spasm.

283. The best time for surgery of hypospadias is:
1. 1-4 months of age.
2. 6-10 months of age.
3. 12-18 months of age.
4. 2-4 years of age.
Ans. ?4

284. Which of the following is not true about Berger's disease?
1. The pathologic changes are proliferative and usually confined to measangial cells:
2. Hematuria may be gross or microscopic.
3. On immunofluorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG.
4. Absence of associated protyeinuria is pathognomonic.
Ans. 4

285. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and Eastern U.P. is:
1. Wuchereria bancrofti.
2. Brugia malayi.
3. Onchocerca volvulus.
4. Dirofilaria.

286. Which one of the following statements is false with regard in Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis in children.
1. Often affects those younger than 8 years of age.
2. It affects the kidney focally more frequently than diffusely.
3. Boys are affected more frequently.
4. Clinical presentation in children is same as in adults.\

287. The Hunterian Ligature operation is performed for:
1. Varicose veins.
2. Arteriovenous fistulae.
3. Aneurysm.
4. Acute ischemiz.

288. Pseudoclaudication is due to the compression of:
1. Femoral artery.
2. Femoral nerve.
3. Cauda Equina.
4. Popliteal artery.
Ans. 3

289. Sympathectomy is indicated in all the following conditions except:
1. Ischaemic ulcers.
2. Intermittent claudication.
3. Anhidrosis.
4. Acrocyanosis.
Ans. 3

290. Which one of the following statements is false with regard to pyaria in children?
1. Presence of more than 5 WBC/hpf (high power field) for girls and more than 3 WBC/hpf for boys.
2. Infection can occur without pyuria.
3. Pyuria may be present without Urinary tract infection.
4. Isolated pyuria is neither confirmatory nor diagnostic for Urinary tract infection.

291. Which one of the folloing is the most common cause of abdominal mass in neonates?
1. Neuroblastomas.
2. Wilms' tumour.
3. Distended bladder.
4. Multicystic dysplastic kidneys.
Ans. 4

292. All of the following are risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) except:
1. Duration of Surgery more than thirty minutes.
2. Obesity.
3. Age less than forty years.
4. Use of the oestrogen-projesterone contraceptive pills.
Ans. 3?

293. A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
1. Weil Felix test.
2. Paul Bunnel test.
3. Microscopic agglutination test.
4. Micro immunofluorescence test.

294. A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside. The most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by:
1. 70% alcohol for 5 min.
2. 2% gluteraldelyde for 20 min.
3. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min.
4. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min.

295. Which of the following statements is true about rabies virun:
1. It is a double stranded RNA virus.
2. Contains a DNA dependant RNA polymerase.
3. RNA has a negative polarity.
4. Affects motor neurons
Ans. 3

296. Which of the following statements is true about endemic typhus.
1. Is caused by R. rickettsii.
2. Is transmitted by the bite of fleas.
3. Has no mammalian reservoir.
4. Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium.
Ans. 2

297. A 45 year old female is having bilatertal ovarian mass, ascites and omental caking on CT scan, There is high possibility that patient is having .
1. Benign ovarian tumor.
2.Malignant epithelial ovarian tumor.
3. Dysgerminoma of ovary.
4. Lymphoma of ovary.
Ans. 2

298. The commonest cause of an obliterative stricture of the membranous urethra is:
1. Fall-astride injury.
2. Road-traffic accident with fracture pelvis and rupture urethra.
3. Prolonged catheterization
4. Gonococcal infection.
Ans.2 [Bailey 1359]

299. Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia:
1. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis.
2. Nocturnal frequency.
3. Recurrent urinary tract infection.
4. Voiding bladder pressures> 50 cm of water.

300. A 27 year old man presents with a left testicular tumor with a 10 cm retroperitoneal lymph node mass. The treatment of choice is
1. Radiotherapy .
2. Immunotherapy with interferon and interleukins.
3. Left high inguinal orchiectomy plus chemotherapy.
4. Chemotherapy alone.
Ans. 3

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