Tuesday, 27 January 2015

AIPMT Chemistry Solved Question Papers 2015

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AIPMT Chemistry Solved Question Papers 2015 - All candidates can download here Chemistry question papers for examination to All India Pre-Medical Pre-Dental Entrance Test - 2015 for admission to MBBS and BDS programmes for the academic session 2015-16. The entrance examination will be held on May 3, 2015.

We have presented question papers in different set's. All these question will help you for a better exam preparation.

The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.  For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be  deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

1. An anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:
1.Black cylinder with white shoulders.
2.Black cylinder with gray shoulders.
3.White cylinder with black shoulders.
4.Grey cylinder with white shoulders.
Ans. 1

2. During rapid sequence induction of anesthesia:|
1.Slick's maneuver is not required.
2.Pre-oxygenation is mandatory.
3.Suxamethonium is contraindicated.
4.Patient is mechanically ventilated before end tracheal incubation.
Ans. 2?

3. A 5-year-old boy suffering from Duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon-lengthening procedure. The most appropriate anaesthetic would be:
1.Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O; and halothane for maintenance.
2.Induction with intravenous protocol and N2O; and oxygen for maintenance.
3.Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O; and halothane for maintenance.
4.Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O; oxygen for maintenance.
Ans. 2

4. A 25 years old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general anesthesia with spontaneous respiration. The most efficient anaesthetic circuit is:
1.Mapleson A.
2.Mapleson B.
3.Mapleson C.
4.Mapleson D.

5. In all of the following conditions neuraxial blockade is absolutely contraindicated, except:
1.Patient refusal.
3.Severe hypovolemia.
4.Pre-existing neurological deficits.
Ans. 4? 1?

6. Interscalene approach to brachial plexus block does not provide optimal surgical anaesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve:
Ans. 2?

7. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is: |
1.Absence of brachiocephalic trunk.
2.Left vertebral artery arising from the arch.
3.Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk.
4.Presence of retroesophageal subelavian artery.
Ans. 3

8. The blood vessel related to the paraduodenal fossa is:
1.Gonadal Vein.
2.Superior mesenteric artery.
3.Portal vein.
4.Inferior mesenteric vein.
Ans. 4

9. The nerve commonly damaged during McBurney's incision is:
3.11th Thoracic.
4.10th thoracic.

10. The lumbar region of the vertebral column permits all of the following movements except:
3.Lateral Flexion

11. All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except:
1.Mastoid process.
2.Tubercles of Humerus.
3.Trochanters of femur.
4.Condyles of tibia.

12. All of the following statements are true for metaphysis of bone except:
1.It is the strongest part of bone.
2.It is the most vascular part of bone.
3.Growth activity is maximized here.
4.It is the region favouring hematogenous spread of infection.

13. All of the following features can be observed after the injury to axillary nerve except:
1.Loss of rounded contour of shoulder.
2.Loss of sensation along lateral side of upper arm.
3.Loss of overhead abduction.
4. Atrophy of deltoid muscle.

14. Allof the following muscles are grouped together as muscles of mastication except:
Ans. 1

15. Referred pain from ureteric colic is felt in the groin due to involvement of the following nerve:

16. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the conducting system in the heart except:
1.SA Node.
2.AV Node.
3.AV Bundle.
4.Right boundle branch.

17. A commonest cause for neuralgic pain in foot is:
1.Compression of Communication between medical and lateral planter nerves.
2.Exaggeration of longitudinal arches.
3.Injury to deltoid ligament.
4.Shortening of planter aponeurosis.

18. The main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics is:
1.Cytochrome P-450
2.Glutathione S-transferase.
3.NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase.
4.Glucuronyl transferase.
Ans. 3

19. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is:
1.An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin.
2.Replacement of glutamate by valine in B-chain of HbA.
3.A nonsense mutation in the B-chain of HbA.
4.Substitution of valine by glutamate in the a-chain of Hba.
Ans. 2

20. A 40 years old lady delivered a full term baby. On examination of the baby, the neonatologist noted certain urogenital abnormality. He took the following the picture. The most likely diagnosis is:
1.Urogenital sinus.
2.Hypertrophied clitoris.
4.Vulval hematoma.
Ans. 2

21. Decreased Glycolytic activity impairs oxygen transport by hemoglobin due to:
1.Reduced energy production.
2.Decreased production of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate.
3.Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin.
4.Low levels of oxygen.
Ans. 2

22. The primary role of chaperones is to help in:
1.Protein synthesis.
2.Protein degradation.
3.Protein denaturation.
4. Protein folding.
Ans. 4

23. The conversion of an optically pure isomer (enantiomer) into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo forms is called as:
Ans. 3

24. The protein rich inbasic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in chromosomes, is:
3. Hyaluronic acid binding protein.

26. An enzyme involved in the catabolism of fructose to pyruvate in the liver is:
1.Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Dehydrogenase.
Ans. 1

27. The following separation technique depends on the molecular size of the protein:
1.Chromatography on a carboxymethyl (CM) cellulose column.
2.Iso-electric focusing.
3.Gelfiltration chromatography.
4.Chromatography on a diethylaminoethly (DEAE) cellulose column.
Ans. 3

28. The substances present in the gall bladder stones or the kidney stoens can be best identified by the following technique:
1.Fluorescence spectroscopy.
2.Electron microscopy.
3.Nuclear magnetic resonance.
4.X-ray diffraction.
Ans 4

30. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing:
1.Criterion validity.
2.Construct validity.
3.Discriminant validity.
4.Content validity.
Ans. 1

31. An increase in which of the following parameters will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left.
1. Temperature.
2. Partial pressure of CO2
3. 2,3 DPG concentration.
4. Oxygen affinity of haemoglobin.
Ans. 4

32. At the end of a balanced anaesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received?
Ans. 3

33. A 64 Year old hypertensive obese female was undergoing surgery for fracture femur under general anaesthesia. Intra operatively her end-tidal carbon-dioxide decreased to 20 from 40mm of Hg. followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%. What could be the most probable cause?
1.Fat embolism.
4.Myocradial infarction.

34. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss (below the level of lesion) of:
1.Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side.
2.Proprioception on the contralateral side.
3.Pain sensation on the contralateral side.
4.Propriception on the ispilateral side.
Ans. 3

35. A 30 year old man came to the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest, was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are:
1.Medial rectus and superior division of oculmotor nerve.
2.Inferior oblique and inferior division of oculomotor nerve.
3.Lateral rectuas and abducent nerve.
4.Superior rectus and trochlear nerve.
Ans. 3

36. The cells belonging to the following type of epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane:
1. Transitional
2. Stratified squamous
3. Stratified cuboidal.
4. Stratified columnar.
Ans. 1

37. Injury to radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove:
1. Spares nerve supply to extensor carpiradialis longus.
2. Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle.
3. Leves extension at elbow joint intact.
4. Weakens pronation movement.
Ans. 3

38. In a patient with a tumor in Superior medistinum compressing the superior vena cava, all the following venis would serve as alternate pathways forthe blood to return to the right atrium, except:
1.Lateral thoracic vein.
2.Internal thoracic vein.
3.Hemiazygos vein.
4.Vertebral venous plexus.
Ans. 4

39. B-oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids produces:
1.Succinyl CoA.
2.Propionyl CoA.
3.Acetyl CoA.
4.Malonyl CoA.
Ans 2

40. The buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH equal to:
1. 0.5pKa.
2. pKa
3. pKa+1
4. 2pKa
Ans. 2

41. Which of the following is present intracellularly in muscle cells:
1. Insulin.
2. Corticosteroid.
3. Epinephrine.
4. Glucagon.
Ans. 2

42. Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA?
1. Splicing.
2. 5' Capping.
3. 3' polyadenylation.
4. Glycosylation.
Ans. 4

43. Serum total lactate dehydrogenase level will NOT be raised in:
1. Muscle crush injury.
2. Stroke.
3. Myocardial infrction.
4. Hemolysis.
Ans. 2

45. Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of:
1. Causal relationship between exposure and effect.
2. Association between two variables.
3. Correlation between two variables.
4. Agreement between two observations.
Ans. 4

46. Elements of primary health care include all of the following except:
1. Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation.
2. Providing essential drugs.
3. Sound referral system.
4. Health Education.
Ans. 3

47. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of:
1. True positives +False negatives.
2. False positives + True negatives.
3. True positives + False positives.
4. True positives + True negatives.
Ans. 3

48. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under Rural child Health (RCH) Program are:
1. 20 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid.
2. 40 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid.
3. 40 mg iron & 50 micrograms folic acid.
4. 60 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid.

49. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for:
1. Herd Immunity.
2 .Prognosis.
3. Treatment.
4. Epidemiological investigations.
Ans. 2

50. A measure of location which divides the distribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:
1. Median.
2. First quartile.
3. Third quartile.
4. Mode.
Ans. 3

51. The following statements about meningococcal meningitis are true, except:
1. The source of infection is mainly clinical cases.
2. The disease is more common in dry and cold months of the year.
3. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is recommended.
4. The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years of age.
Ans. 1

52. The Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is defined as:
1. The gain in weight of young animals per unit weight of protein-consumed.
2. The product of digestibility coefficient and biological value.
3. The percentage of protein absorbed into the blood.
4. The percentage of nitrogen absorbed from the protein absorbed from the diet.
Ans. 1

53. The Vitamin A supplement administered in Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme" contain:
1. 25,000 i.u./ml.
2. 1 lakh i.u./m.l.
3. 3 lakh i.u./m.l.
4. 5 lakh i.u./m.l.
Ans. 2

54. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:
1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis.
2. Chalamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis.
3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
4. Syphilis and chancroid.
Ans. 3

55. Acantholysis is characteristic of:
1. Pemphigus vulgaris.
2. Pemphigoid.
3. Erythema multiforme.
4. Dermatitis hepetiformis.

56. Mummification refers to:
1. Hardening of muscles after death.
2. Colliquative putrifaction.
3. Saponification ofsubcutaneous fat.
4. Dessication of a dead body.
Ans. 4

57. A patient has been allegedly bitten by cobra snake. The venom in such a bite would be:
1. Musculotoxic.
2. Vasculotoxic.
3. Cardiotoxic.
4. Neurotoxic.
Ans. 4

58. All the following are related to legal responsibility of an insane person except.
1. Mc Naughten's rule
2. Durham's rule.
3. Curren's rule.
4. Rule of nine.
Ans. 4

59. All of the following infections are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except:
1. Clostridium tetani.
2. Bartonella bacilliformis.
3. Plasmodium falciparum.
4. Babesia microti.
Ans. 1

60. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except.
1. Peaked T waves.
2. Presence of U waves.
3. Sine wave pattern.
4. Loss of P waves.
Ans. 2

61. The correct sequence of cell cycle is:
1. G0-G1-S-G2-M.
2 .G0-G1-G2-S-M.
3 .G0-M-G2-S-G1.
4 .G0-G1-S-M-G2.
Ans. 1

62. In suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to:
1. Lead.
2. Arsenic.
3. Mercury.
4. Copper
Ans. 2

63. A 70 year old male patient presented with history of chest painand was diagnosed to have coronary artery disease. During routine evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of gallabladder stones. There was no past history of biliary colic or jaundice. What is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones.
1. Open cholecystectomy.
2. Laproscopic cholecystectomy.
3. No surgery for gallbladder stones.
4. ERCP and removal of gallbladder stones.
Ans. 3

64. Commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis is:
1. Japanese B Virus
2. Herpes Simplex Virus.
3. Human Immunadeficiency Virus.
4. Rubeola Virus.
Ans. 2

65. Raised serum level of lipoprotein (a) is a predictor of:
1. Cirrhosis of liver.
2. Rheumatic arthritis.
3. Atherosclerosis.
4. Cervical cancer.
Ans. 3

66. Haemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be best corrected by administration of:
1. Vitamin K.
2. Whole blood.
3. Protamine.
4. Ascorbic acid.
Ans. 2

68. Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion
1. Cirrhosis.
2. Nephrotic syndrome.
3. Congestive heart failure.
4. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
Ans. 4

69. Heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures can be best sterilized by:
1. Absolute alcohol.
2. Ultra violet rays.
3. Cholorine releasing compounds.
4. Ethylene oxide gas.
Ans. 4

70. A 60 years old man is diagnosed to be suffering from Legionnaires disease after he returns home from attending a convention. He could have acquired it:
1. From a person suffering from the infection while traveling in the aeroplane.
2. From a chronic carrier in the convention center.
3. From inhalation of the aerosal in the air conditioned room at convention center.
4. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention.
Ans. 3

71. In post-operative intensive careunit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same day. The best method to prevent cross infection occuring in other patients in the same ward is to:
1. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward.
2. Fumigate the ward.
3. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite.
4. Practice proper hand washing.
Ans. 4

72. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is:
1. IgA.
2. IgG.
3. IgE.
4. IgM.
Ans. 4

73. The following are true regarding Lyme's Disease, except:
1. It is transmitted by ixodes tick.
2. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature.
3. Borrelia recurrentis is the aetiological agent.
4. Rodents act as natural hosts.
Ans. 3

74. A 55 year old lady presenting to out patent department (OPD) with postmenopausal bleding for 3 months has a 1x1 cm nodule on the anterior lib of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently is:
1. Pap smear.
2. Punch biopsy.
3. Endocervical curettage.
4. Coloposcopy.
Ans. 2

75. A hemodynamically stable nulliparous patient with ectopic preganancy has adnexal mass of 2.5 x 3 cms and Beta hCG titre of 1500 miu/ml. What modality of treatment is suitable for her:
1. Conservative management.
2. Medical Management.
3. Laparoscopic Surgery.
4. Laparotomy.
Ans. 2

76. A primigravida at 37 week of gestation reported to labour room with central placenta praevia with heavy bleeding per vaginum. The fetal heart rate was normal at the time of examination. The best management option for her is:
1. Expectant management.
2. Caesarean section.
3. Induction and vaginal delivery.
4. Induction and forceps delivery.
Ans. 2

77. A case of Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develop after:
1. Hydatidiform mole.
2.Full term pregancy.
3. Spontaneous abortion.
4. Ectopic Pregancy.
Ans. 2

78. All of the following are known risk factors for development of endometrial carcinoma except:
1. Obesity.
2. Family History.
3. Use of Hormone Replacement Therapy
4. Early Menopause.
Ans. 4

79. In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usually erodes:
1. Intervertebral disc.
2. Into the pleural cavity.
3. Into the reteroperitoneal space.
4. Towards the skin.
Ans ?? 3/4

80. A ten-year old girl presents with swelling of one knee joint. All of the following conditions can be considered in the differential diagnosis, except:
1. Tuberculosis.
2. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.
3. Haemophilia.
4. Villonodular synovitis.
Ans. 3

81. A vascular necrosis can be possible sequelae of fracture of all the following bones, except:
1. Femur neck
2. Scaphoid.
3. Talus.
4. Calcaneum.
Ans. 4

82. A 5 year old boy has been diagnosed to have posterior superior retraction pocket cholesteatoma. All would constitute part of the management, except:
1. Audiometry.
2. Mastoid exploration.
3. Tympanoplasty.
4. Myringoplasty.
Ans 4

83. A 31 year old female patient complaints of bilateral impairment of hearing for the past 5 years. On examination, tympanic membrance is normal and aduiogram shows a bilateral conductive deafness. Impedance audiometry. Shows as type of curve and acoustic reflexes are absent. All constitute part of treatment, except:
1. Hearing aid.
2. Stapedectomy.
3. Sodium Fluoride.
4. Gentamicin.
Ans. 4

84. A middle aged male comes to the outer patient department (OPD) with the only complaint of hoarseness of voice for the past 2 years. he has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On examination, a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a portion both cords was seen. Management would include all except:
1. Cessation of smoking.
2. Bilateral cordectomy.
3. Microlaryngeal surgery for biopsy.
4. Regular follow-up.
Ans. 2

85. A couple, with a family history of beta thalassemia major in a distant relative. has come for counseling. The husband had HbA2 of 4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The risk of having a child with beta thalassemia major is:
1. 50%
2. 25%
3. 5%
4. 0%
Ans. 4

86. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hour and vomited twice in last 4 hour. he is irritable but drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is:
1. Intravenous fluids.
2. Oral rehydration therapy.
3. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by oral fluids.
4. Plain water ad libitum.
Ans. 2

87. A 2 month old baby with accute icteric viral hepatitis like illness slips into encephalopathy after 48 hours. The mother is a known hepatitis B carrier. Mother's hepatitis B virus serological profile is most likely to be:
1. HBsAg positive only.
2. HbsAg and HBeAg positve.
3. HBsAg and HBe antibody positive.
4. HBV DNA positive.
Ans. 2

88. Thirty-eight children consumed eatables procured from a single source at a picnic party. Twenty children developed abdominal cramps followed by vomiting and watery diarrhea 6-10 hours after the party. The most likely etiology for the outbreak is:
1. Rotavirus infection.
2. Entero-toxigenic E.Coli infection
3. Staphylococcol toxin.
4. Claustridium perfringens infection.
Ans. 4

89. A 7 ear old girl from Bihar presented with three epidodes of massive hematemesis and melena. There is no history of jaundice. On examination, she had a large spleen, non-palpable liver and mild ascites. Portal vein was not visualized on ultrasonography. Liver function tests were normal and endoscopy reveled esophageal varices. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Kala azar with portal hypertension.
2. Portal hypertension of unknown etiology.
3. Chronic liver disease with portal hypertension.
4. Portal hypertension due to extrahepatic obstruction.
Ans. 4

90. A 40 year old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of:
1. Dohle bodies
2. Hypersegmented neutrophils.
3. Spherocytes.
4. Howell-Jolly bodies.
Ans. 4

91. Which of the heart valve is most likely to be involved by infective endocarditis following a septic abortion?
1. Aortic valve.
2. Tricuspid valve.
3. Pulmonary valve.
4. Mitral valve.
Ans. 2

92. Central nervous system manifestations in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following, except:
1. Hyperosmolarity.
2. Hypocalcemia.
3. Acidosis.
4. Hyponatremia.
Ans. 1?2

93. An increased incidence of cholangiocarcinoma is seen in all ofthe following, except:
1. Hydatid cyst of liver.
2. Polycystic disease of liver.
3. Sclerosing cholangitis.
4. Liver flukes.
Ans. 1

94. Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in:
1. Peutz-Jegher's polyp.
2. Familial polyposis coli.
3. Juvenile polyposis.
4. Hyperplastic polyp.
Ans. 2

95. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with which of the following syndrome:
1. MEN I.
2. MEN II.
3. Fraumeni syndrome.
4. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Ans. 2

96.Granulocytopenia, gingival hyperplasia and facila hirsutism are all possible side effects of one of the following anticonvulsant drugs.
1. Phenytoin.
2. Valproate.
3. Carbamazepine.
4. Phenobarbitone.
Ans. 1

97. Bacitracin acts on:
1. Cell Wall
2. Cell Membrane.
3. Nucleic Acid.
4. Ribosome.
Ans. 1

98. All of the following drugs act on cell membrance, except:
1. Nystatin.
2. Griseofulvin.
3. Amphotericin B
4. Polymixin B.
Ans. 2

99. Two students. Vineet and Kamlesh were asked to demonstrate in dogs the role of sinus nerve in hypovolemic shock. Vineet severed the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure (MBP) was 85mm Hg and Kamlesh cut the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure was 60mm Hg. On cutting the sinus nerve:
1. Vineet recorded an increase in MBP but Kamlesh recorded a decrease in MBP.
2. Vineet recorded a decrease in MBP but Kamlesh recorded an increase in MBP.
3. Both recorded an increase in MBP.
4. Both recorded in decrease in MBP.
Ans. 1?

100. As a part of space-research program, a physiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight-induced stress on blood pressure. Accordingly, the blood pressure of the cosmonauts were to be measured twice: once before the take-off, and once after the spacecraft entered the designated orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison, the pre-flight blood pressure should be recorded in:
1. The lying down position.
2. The sitting position.
3. The standing position.
4. Any position, as long as the post-flight recording is made in the same position.
Ans. 1

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