Tuesday, 27 January 2015

AIPMT Chemistry Solved Sample Papers 2015

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AIPMT Chemistry Solved Sample Papers 2015 - All candidates can download here Chemistry sample papers for examination to All India Pre-Medical Pre-Dental Entrance Test - 2015 for admission to MBBS and BDS programmes for the academic session 2015-16. The entrance examination will be held on May 3, 2015.

We have presented question papers in different set's. All these question will help you for a better exam preparation.

The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.  For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be  deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

101. The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was to be estimated through the measurement of Para Amino Hippuric acid (PAH) clearance. The technician observed the procedures correctly but due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used thrice the recommended does of PAH. The RPF estimated is likely to be:
1. False-high.
2. False-low
3. False-high or false-low depending on the GFR.
4. Correct and is unaffected by the PAH overdose.

105. All of the following are features of hallucinations, except:
1.It is independent of the will of the observer.
2.Sensory organs are not involved.
3.It is a vivid as that in a true sense perception.
4. It occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus.
Ans. 2

106. All of the following statements regarding bio availability of a drug are true except:
1. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation.
2. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the Area Under Curve (0- ) after oral and intravenous (iv) administration.
3.Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption.
4.Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data.
Ans. 3

107. The extent to which ionisation of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. which of the following statements is not correct.
1.pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized.
2.Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionisation.
3.Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behaviour in various body fluids.
4.Phenobarbitonewith a pKa of 7.2 is largely ionized at acid pH and will be about 40% non-ionised in plasma.
Ans. 4

108. Presence of food might be expected to interfere with drug absorption by slowing gastric emptying, or by altering the degree of ionisation of the drug in the stomach. Which of the following statements is not correct example:
1. Absorption of digoxin is delayed by the presence of food.
2. Concurrent food intake may severely reduce the rate of absorption of phenytoin.
3. Presence of food enhances the absorption of hydrochlorthiazide.
4. Anitimalarial drug halofantrine is more extensively absorbed if taken with food.
Ans. 3

109. Defirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with:
1. Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors.
2. Features of intoxication due to alcohol.
3. Sixth nerve palsy.
4. Korsakoff psychosis.
Ans. 1

110. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating:
1. Pleural effusion.
2. Interstitial lung disease.
3. Lung mass.
4. Mediastinal adenopathy.
Ans. 2

111. Which one of the following is a recognized X-Ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
1. Juxta-articular osteosclerosis.
2. Sacroilitis.
3. Bone erosions.
4. Peri-articular calcification.
Ans 3

112. A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enhanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lessons and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Sarcoidosis.
2. Tuberculosis.
3. Lymphoma.
4. Silicosis.
Ans. 2

113. A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is:
1. Thymoma
2. Lung Cancer.
3. Hodgkin's lymphoma.
4. Superior vena caval obstruction.
Ans. 4

114. A vitreous aspirate has been collected in an emergency at 9 pm what advice you like to give to the staff on duty regarding the overnight storage of the sample.
1. The sample should be kept at 4° C.
2. The sample should be incubated at 37°C.
3. The sample should be refrigerated deep freezer.
4. The sample should be refrigerated for the initial 3 hours and then incubated at 37°C.
Ans. 1

115. A 20 year old man complains of difficulty in reading the newspaper with his right eye. Three weeks after sustaining a gunshot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Macular edema.
2. Sympathetic ophthalmia.
3. Optic nerve avulsion.
4. Delayed vitreous hemorrhage.
Ans 2

116. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:
1. Trachoma.
2. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
3. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis.
4. Vernal kerato conjunctivitis.
Ans. 4

117. A patient is on follow-up with you after enucleation of a painful blind eye. After enucleation of the eyball, a proper sized artifical prosthetic eye is advised after a postoperative period of:
1. About 10 days
2. About 20 days.
3. 6-8 weeks.
4. 12-24 weeks.
Ans. 3

118. A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment:
1. Propamidine.
2. Neosporine.
3. Ketocanazole
4. Polyhexamethylene biguanide.
Ans. 1

119. One unit of fresh blood raisesthe HB% concentration by:
1. 0.1gm%
2. 1gm%
3. 2gm%
4. 2.2gm%
Ans. 2

120. Early stage of trauma is characterized by:
1. Catabolism
2. Anabolism
3. Glycogenesis.
4. Gluconeogenesis.
Ans. 4

121. All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except:
1. protein S deficiency.
2. Malignancy.
3. Obesity.
4. Progesterone therapy.
Ans. 4

122. An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except:
1.Small ventricular septal defect.
2.Papillary muscle dysfunction.
3.Tricuspid regurgitation.
4.Aortic stenosis.
Ans. 4

123. Bedsore is an example of:
1.Tropical ulcer.
2.Trophic ulcer.
3.Venous ulcer.
4.Post thrombotic ulcer.
Ans. 2

124. Marjolin's ulcer is a: |
1.Malignant ulcer found on the scar of burn.
2.Malignant ulcer found on infected foot.
3.Tropic ulcer.
4.Melency's gangrene.
Ans. 1

125. If a patient with Raynaud's disease immersed his hand in cold water, the hand will
1.Become red.
2.Remain Unchanged.
3.Turn white.
4.Become blue.
Ans 3

126. The best treatment for cystic hygroma is:
1.Surgical excision.
Ans. 1

127. which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small bowel obstruction:
1.Generalised abdominal distension.
2.Failure to pass meconeum in the first 24 hours.
3.Bilious vomiting.
4.Refusal of feeds.
Ans. 3

128. What is most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
1.Affects the first born female child.
2.The pylori tumour is best feld during feeding.
3.The patient is commonly marasmic.
4.Loss of appetite occurs early.
Ans. 2

129. What is the most appropriate operation for a solitary nodule in one lobe of thyroid:
3.Nodule removal.
4.Partial lobectectomy with 1 cm margin around nodule.
Ans. 2

130. All of the following may occur in Noonan's syndrome except:
1.Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
2.Crypto orchitis
3.Infertility in females.
4.Autosomal dominant transmission.
Ans. 3

131. SAFE strategy has been developed for the control of:
3.Refractive error.
4.Ocular trauma.
Ans. 2

132. The commonest cause of low vision in India is:
1.Uncorrected refractive errors.
Ans. 1

133. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is:
1.Activities of Daily living (ADL) scale.
2.Wing's Handicaps, Behavior and Skills (HBS) Schedule.
3.Binet and Simon IQ tests.
4.Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)
Ans 1

134. Scope of family planning services include all of the following except:
1.Screening for cervical cancer.
2.Providing services for unmarried mothers.
3.Screening for HIV infection.
4.Providing adoption services.
Ans. 3

135. Class II exposure in animal bites includes the following:
1.Scratches without oozing of blood.
2.Licks on a fresh wound.
3.Scratch with oozing of blood on palm.
4.Bites from wild animals.
Ans. 2

136. Elemental iron and folic acid contest of iron & folic acid adult tablets supplied under the National Programme for Anaemia Prophylaxis are:
1. 60mg of elemental iron and 250 micrograms of folic acid.
2. 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 micrograms of folic acid.
3. 120 mg of elemental iron and 750 micrograms of folic acid.
4. 200 mg of elemental iron and 1000 micrograms of folic acid.
Ans. 2?

137. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes:
1. All the people living in next fifty houses.
2. All the close contacts.
3. All susceptibles amongst close contact.
4. All susceptibles in the whole village.
Ans. 3

138. The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on:
1.Visual analog scale.
2.Guttman Scale.
3.Likert Scale.
4.Adjectival scale.
Ans. 3

139. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except:
1. Prevalence of the disease in population.
2. Power of the study.
3. Significance level.
4. Desired precision.
Ans. 3

140. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of leprosy is more than:
1. 1 per 10,000
2. 2 per 10,000
3. 5 per 10,000
4. 10 per 10,000
Ans. 1

141. In one single visit, a 9 month-old, unimmunized childcan begiven the following vaccination:
1.Only BCG.
2.BCG, DPT-1, OPV-1.
3.DPT-1, OPV-1, Measles.
4.BCG,DPT-1, OpV-1, Measles.
Ans. 4

142. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except:
1.Mass chemoprophylaxis.
2.Proper disposal of excreta.
3.Chlorination of Water.
4.Early detection and management of cases.

143. A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11 Kg. respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is?
1. Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to secondary level hospital.
2. Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotic and advise to report after 2 days.
3. Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics and refer urgently.
4. Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently.
Ans. 3

144. A 5 year old boy has multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with fine scalng on his face. The most probable clinical diagnosis is:
1.Pityriasis versicolor.
2.Indeterminate leprosy.
3.Pityriasis alba.
4.Acrofacial vitiligo.

145. A 40 year old male developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extremities. Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular igG deposits inthe epidermis. The most probable diagnosis is:
1.Pemphigus vulgaris.
2.Bullous Pemphigoid.
3.Bullous Lupus erythematosus.
4.Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita.

146. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaque on the face is
1. Gram Stain
2. KOH Mount
3. Tissue Smear
4. Woods Lamp Examination
Ans: 2

147. Blackening and tattooing of skin and clothing can be best demonstrated by
1. Luminol spray
2. Infra red photography
3. UV light
4. Magnifying lens
Ans 2

148 Post mortem lividity is unlikely to develop in a case of
1. Drowning in well
2. Drowning in fast flowing river
3. Post mortem submersion
4. Drowning in clorinated swimming pool
Ans 2

149 The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death EXCEPT
1. Burns
2. Heat Strokes
3. Pontine Hemorrhage
4. Septicemia
Ans 1

150 Troponin T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute MI in all of the following situations except
1. bed side diagnosis of MI
2. Post operatively after CABG
3. Reinfarction after 4 days
4. Small Infarcts
Ans 3

151. In prenatal diagnostic technique Act 1994 which one of the following is not a ground for carrying out prenatal test?
1. Pregnant women above 35 years of age
2. History of two or more spontaneous abortion of fetal loss.
3. When fetal heart rate is 160 per min at fifth and 120 per min at ninth month.
4. History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs.
Ans. 3

152. Perjury means giving willfull false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years. This falls under which section of IPC?
1. 190 of Indian Penal Code.
2. 191 of Indian Penal Code.
3. 192 of Indian Penal Code.
4. 193 of Indian Penal Code.
Ans. 4

153. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson's method of identification is:
1.Cementum apposition.
2.Transparency of root.
4.Root resorption.
Ans. 2

154. The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to:
1. Rheumatic heart disease.
2. Dilatation of right ventricle.
3. Coronary artery disease.
4. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse.
Ans. 2

155. An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his sclap. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
1. Oral griseofulvin therapy.
2. Topical griseofulving therapy.
3. Shaving of the scalp.
4. Selenium sulphide shampoo.
Ans. 1

156. Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by:
1. 3Hz spike & wave.
2. 1-2Hz spike & wave.
3. Generalized polysikes.
4. Hyparrythmia.
Ans 1

157. All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except:
1.Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
2.Membrano-proliferative Glomerulonephritis.
3.Good pasture's disease.
4.Systemic lupus erythematosus.
Ans. 3

158. Diagnostic features of allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except:
1.Changing pulmonary infiltrates.
2.Peripheral eosinophilia.
3.Serum precipitins against Aspergillosis fumigatus.
4.Occurance in patients with old cavitary lesions.
Ans. 4

159. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by:
3.Ethylene glycol poisoning.
4.Lactic acidosis.
Ans. 1

160. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone is characterized by the following
1. Hyponatremia andurine sodium excretion >20meq/l.
2. Hypernatremia andurine sodium exeretion < 20meq/l.
3. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.
4. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia.
Ans. 1

161. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except:
1. Opening snap.
2. Pericardial knock.
3. Ejection click.
4. Tumor plop.
Ans. 3

162. Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of the following conditions except:
1. Toxic oil syndrome.
2. Progressive systemic sclerosis.
3. Sickle cell anaemia.
4. Argemone mexicana poisoning.
Ans. 4/1??

163. Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the following except.
1. Mineralocorticoid deficiency.
2. Bartter's syndrome.
3. Thiazide diuretic therapy.
4. Recurrent vomiting.

164. The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulcertion in a sexually active male is:
1. Herpes genitalis.
2. Aphthous ulcer.
3. Syphilis.
4. Chancroid.
Ans. 1

165. The most effective drug against M. leprae is:
1. Dapsone.
2. Rifampicin.
3. Clofazamine.
4. Prothionamide.
Ans. 2

166. An 8 month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and soles, The siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice in such a patient is:
1. Sytemic ampicillin.
2. Topical betamethasone.
3. Systemic prednisolone.
4. Topical permethrin.
Ans 4

167. A 30-yer-old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Tuberculosis.
2. Cryptococcosis.
3. Pneunocytis carinii pneumonia.
4. Toxoplasmosis.
Ans. 3

168. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification expecially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of:
1. Coal worker's pneumoconiosis.
2. Asbestosis.
3. Silicosis.
4. Siderosis.
Ans. 2

169. Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is:
1. Seizures.
2. Focalneurological deficits.
3. Dementia.
4. Radiculopathy.
Ans. 1?

170. A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness andchest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be:
1. Lung ventilation-perfusion scan.
2. Pulmonary arteriography.
3. Pulmonary venous angiography.
4. Echocardiography.
Ans. 1

171. Which of the following is the most common location of hypertensive hemorrhage?
1. Pons.
2. Thalamus.
3. Putamen/external capsule.
4. Subcortical white matter.
Ans. 3

172. A 60 year-old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen right ankle joint. Radiographs ofthe ankle show destroyed joint with large number ofloose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Charcot's joint
2. Clutton's joint.
3. Osteoarthritis.
4. Rheumatoid arthritis.
Ans. 1

173. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except:
1. T-wave inversions develop before ST elevations return to baseline.
2. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis.
3. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding.
4. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients.
Ans. 1

174. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:
1. Iridocylitis.
2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
3. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
4. Giant cell arteritis.
Ans. 3

175. In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically caused by:
1. Cytomegalvirus.
2. Toxoplasma gondii.
3. Cryptococcus neoformans.
4. Histoplasma capsulatum.
Ans. 1

176. The following are true for Bordetella perussis except.
1. It is a strict human pathogen.
2. It can be cultured from the patient during catarrhal stage.
3. It leads to invasion of the respiratory mucosa.
4. Infection can be prevented by a acellular vaccine.
Ans. 3

177. All of the following drugs are used for management of post partum haemorrhage except:
1. Misoprostol.
2. Oxytocin.
3. Prostaglandin.
4. Mifepristone (RU-486)

178. Laporatomy performed in a case of ovarian tumor revealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascities positive for malignatn cells and positive pelvic lyjph nodes. All other structures were free of disease. what is stage of the disease:
1. Stage IIc.
2. Stage IIIa.
3. Stage IIIb.
4. Stage IIIc.
Ans. 4

179. B Lynch suture is applied on:
1. Cervix.
2. Uterus.
3. Fallopian tubes.
4. Ovaries.
Ans. 2

180. Pure gonadal dysgenesis will be diagnosed in the presence of:
1. Bilateral streak gonads.
2. Bilateral dysgenetic gonads.
3. One side streak and other dygenetic gonads.
4. One side streak and other normal looking gonad.
Ans 1

181 Cut-off value of cervical length at 24 weeks of gestation for prediction of preterm delivery is:
1. 0.5cm.
2. 1.5cm
3. 2.5cm
4. 3.5cm
Ans. ?

182. All of the following may be observed in a normal pregnancy except:
1. Fall in serum iron concentration falls.
2. Increase in serum iron building capacity.
3. Increase in blood viscosity increases.
4. Increase in blood oxygen carrying capacity.
Ans 3

183. A 50 Kg. man with severe metabolic acidosis has the following parameters:pH 7.05. pCO2 12mm Hg., pO2 108mm Hg. HCO3 5 meq/L. base excess-30 mEa/L. The approximate quantity of sodium bicarbonate that he should receive in half hour is:
1. 250mEq.
2. 350mEq.
3. 500mEq.
4. 750mEq.
Ans. 2

184. Pyometra is a complication associated with all of the following conditions except:
1. Carcinoma of the vulva.
2. Carcinoma of the cervix.
3. Carcinoma of endometrium.
4. Pelvic radiotherapy.
Ans. 1

185. A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per vaginum and loss of fetal movements. On examinationthe uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. The most likely diagosis is:
1. Placenta praevia.
2. Hydramnios.
3. Premature labour.
4. Abruptio placenta.

186. Most common cause of first trimester abortion is:
1. Chjromosomal abnormalities.
2. Syphilis.
3. Rhesus isoimmunisation.
4. Cervical incompetence.

187. A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anaesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours. which one of the following induction agents is preferred:
1. Thiopentone sodium
2. Ketamine.
3. Diazepam.
4. propofol
Ans 4

188. All of the follwing are mechanisms of action of emergency contraception except:
1. Delaying ovulation.
2. Inhibiting fertilization.
3. Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg.
4. Interrupting an early pregnancy.
Ans. 2

189. A 20 year old woman gives a history of sharp pain in the lower abdomen for 2-3 days every month approximately 2 weeks before the menses. The most probable etiology for her pain is:
1. Endometriosis.
2. Dysmenorrhea.
3. Pelvic tuberculosis.
4. Mittelschmerz.
Ans. 4

190. The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, PCO2 23 mmHg PO2, 300 mmHg and oxygen saturation 60% are most consistent with:
1. Carbon monoxide poisoning.
2. Ventilatory malfunction.
3. Voluntary hyper ventilation.
4. Methyl alcohol poisoning.
Ans. 2

191. Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury:
1. Posterior dislocation of hip joint.
2. Fracture neck of femur.
3. Trochanteric fracture.
4. Anterior dislocation of hip.
Ans. 1

192. A 30 year old male was brought to the casualty following a road traffic accident. His physical examination revealed that his right lower limb was short, internally rotated, and flexed and adducted at the hip. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Fracture neck of femur.
2. Trochanteric fracture.
3. Central Fracture dislocation of hip.
4. Posterior dislocation of hip.

193. Which one of the following tests will you adopt while examining a knee joint where you suspect an old tear of anterior cruciate ligament?
1. Posterior drawer test.
2. MC Murry test.
3. Lachman test.
4. Pivot shift test.

194. Type I Thyroplasty is for:
1. Vocal cord medialization.
2. Vocal cord laterlization.
3. Vocal Cord shortening.
4. Vocal cord lengthening.
Ans. 1

195. Carharts notch in audiogram is deepest frequency of:
1. 0.5KHz
2. 2 KHz.
3. 4 KHz.
4. 8 KHz.
Ans. 2

196. An eight-year-old boy had abdominal pain, fever with bloody diarrhea for 18 months. His height is 110 cms and weight is 14.5 kg. stool culture was negative for known enteropathogens. The sigmoidoscopy was normal. During the same period, child had an episode of renal colic and passed urinary gravel. The mantoux test was 5X 5 mm. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Ulcerative colitis.
2. Crohn's disease.
3. Intestinal tuberculosis.
4. Strongyloidosis
Ans. 2?

197. A 45 day old infant developed icterus and two days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared. Child was found to be positive for HBs Ag. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother's hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be:
1. HBs Ag positive only.
2. HBsAg and HBeAg positivity.
3. HBsAg and anti-Hbe antibody positivity.
4. Mother infected with mutant HBV.
Ans. 2

198. A 15 year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erthema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of:
1. Localised immune-complex deposition.
2. Cell mediated hypersensitivity.
3. Locallized anaphylaxis.
4. Release of complement C3b.
Ans. 3

199. A 2-month baby presents with history of jaundice, turmeric colored urine and pale stools since birth. Examination reveals liver span of 10 cms. Firm in consistency and spleen of 3 cms. The most specific investigation for establishing the diagnosis would be:
1. Liver function tests.
2. Ultrasound abdomen
3. Peroperative Cholangiogram.
4. Liver biopsy.
Ans. 4

200. Transient myeloproliferative disorder of the new born is seen in association with:
1. Turner syndrome.
2. Down syndrome.
3. Neurofibromatosis.
4. Ataxia telangiectasia.
Ans. 2

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