BHU ONLINE

Showing posts with label PMT. Show all posts
Showing posts with label PMT. Show all posts

Monday, 13 January 2020

BHU PMT Online Application 2020

 
BHU PMT Online Application Form 2020 - The application forms for the BHU Medical Entrance Exam 2020 for MBBS/BDS Admission will be start on 04th April 2020 (expected) and last date for its submission will be in May 2020. The fee for registration to UG Courses will be Rs.1000/- for General and OBC candidates and Rs.600/- for PC,SC & ST candidates.


The Institute now invites applications for admission to various courses for the session 2020.

An important notification regarding online and offline application forms for Uttar Pradesh Combined Medical Entrance Test (UPCMET) 2020 has been released by Uttar Pradesh Unaided Medical Colleges Welfare Association (UPUMCWA) for admissions in the private medical colleges across Uttar Pradesh.
Important Dates for BHU PMT 2020

Application Start Date : 04/04/2020

Application End Date : 02/05/2020

Entrance Exam Date: 03/05/2020

Admission to Undergraduate (MBBS/BDS) Courses – 2020

The candidates seeking admission to MBBS/BDS Course 2020 in the Institute of Medical Sciences, BHU must register themselves online in the prescribed application form available on the BHU website (www.bhu.ac.in/ims) alongwith the processing fee. However, the admission will be done on the basis of their merit in the AIPMT – 2020 examination.

All candidates eligible for AIPMT – 2020 are eligible for registering themselves irrespective of their State of domicile.

The applications uploaded after the last date on any account will not be registered.

The candidates who have registered for admission to MBBS/BDS course 2020 must submit their score card of AIPMT 2020 within 15 days after declaration of their results to the Director, Institute of Medical Sciences, Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi.

Tentative counselling for admission to UG Courses (MBBS/BDS) will be held in first week July, 2020. Individual letters to the successful candidates based on their rank in the AIPMT 2020 will be sent by Registered post/Speed Post giving the exact date of counselling. The candidates are advised to check the BHU/IMS website from time totime for updates.

For 15% seats of total 84 MBBS seats i.e. 13 seats, candidates would be admitted through All India Quota (for central counselling) and the remaining 85% i.e. 71 seats will be filled up through IMS, BHU counselling. The distribution of the 71 seats amongst the different categories is as follows:

General – 36, OBC – 19, SC-11 & ST – 05 Total – 71 seats

2 seats – 3% reservation of PC candidates will be given horizontally as per Government of India norms.

Of total 50 BDS seats to be filled up through IMS BHU counselling, the distribution of the seats amongst the different categories is as follows:

General – 23, OBC – 11, SC – 06 & ST – 02 Total – 42 seats

1 Seat – 3% reservation of PC candidates will be given horizontally as per Government of India norms.

Those students who have not got registered with the Director, IMS,BHU will not be considered for admission to MBBS/BDS Courses 2020 through IMS, BHU Counselling. However, mere registration does not guarantee admission to MBBS/BDS courses 2020.

Guide to how to fill the Online Application?
What all do you need to complete the Online application process for BHU ?
As an applicant you would need the following:
  1. A unique E-mail ID for registration and for all future correspondence
  2. Mobile Number to receive SMS based notifications related to the online application
  3. Computer with internet connectivity, B/W printer, scanner or access to a cyber café which has these facilities etc.
  4. A recent passport sized colour photograph
  5. Access to an online payment facility / service such as
    1. Net Banking ,
    2. Credit card,
    3. Debit card,
    4. Cash cards or
    5. Mobile payments etc.
PLEASE NOTE:
  1. Printouts have to be sent to the University so as to reach the office of the controller of Examinations, BHU on or before 07-JUL-2020
  2. No additional documents are required for filling and submitting the online application.
  3. Original certificates issued by competent authority supporting your filled details would be asked from you ONLY at the time of final admission. If data provided in the online application cannot be supported by suitable documents then your application / claim for admission can be summarily rejected.
Before proceeding to fill up the online application form, please ensure that you have the required details for filling and uploading it at different stages so that you can fill the online application and submit it at once.
Steps to be followed for filling the online application
The entire process of filling online application for admission 2020 can be completed in six stages. They are:
  1. Registration for Online Application
  2. Choice of the courses / applications you want to apply
  3. Filling the details in the application form sections for each course / application you choose for applying:
    1. Applicant Details
    2. Correspondence Address and Parental Details
    3. Test Centre Preferences
    4. Upload Photograph and Signature
  4. Final Review and confirmation
  5. Fee Payment & application Submission
Each of these steps is explained in detail below:
Registration for Online Application
  1. To register for the admission-2020 online, you must have a valid e-mail ID to which all communications pertaining to your application would be sent.
  2. Please click on “Apply Now!” given on the home page of the BHU Admission portal (ww.bhuonline.in).
BHU PMT 2020 Syllabus

There is no prescibed syllabus for the exam. The questions are based on 10+2 level  (senior Secondary) syllabus

BHU PMT, UET, PET Results 2020

 
BHU Result 2020 - You can check here Results of Banaras Hindu University (BHU) Undergraduate Entrance Test (UET) & Postgraduate Entrance Test (PET) Entrance Examination held in April - May 2020. Address: Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh 221005
UET Results available for: B. A. (Hons.) Arts, LL.B. (Bachelor of Law), B.Com. (Hons.)/B.Com. (Hons.) Financial, Market Management, B.F.A. (Bachelor of Fine Arts), B.Mus. : Instrumental Flute, B.Mus. : Instrumental Sitar, B.Mus. : Instrumental Tabla, B.Mus. : Instrumental Violin, B.Mus. : Vocal, B.P.A. : Dance - Bharat Natyam, B.P.A. : Dance - Kathak, B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education), B.Sc.(Ag)/B.Sc.(Ag)RGSC, Shastri (Hons.), B. Sc. (Hons.) Maths Group, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education), Humanities and Social Sciences, B. A. (Hons.) Social Sciences, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education), Languages, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education) - Life, Sciences, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education), Mathematics, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education) - Physical, sciences, B. Sc. (Hons.) Bio. Group.

PET Results available for: M.P.Ed. M.Sc. - Molecular and Human Genetics M.Sc. - Forensic Science M.A. - Public Administration M.Sc. - Plant Biotechnology M.A. - Manuscriptology & Paleography M.Sc. - Environmental science M.Mus. - Instrumental(Flute) M.Mus. - Instrumental(Sitar) M.Mus. - Instrumental(Tabla) M.Mus. - Instrumental(Violin) M.Mus. - Vocal M.Sc.(Tech) - Environmental Science and Technology Master of Financial Management (Risk & Insurance)(MFMRI) Master of Finance Management(MFM) Master of Foreign Trade(MFT) MPA - Dance(Bharat Natyam) MPA - Dance(Kathak) LL.M. (1-year) M.Sc. (Ag.) Agroforestry M.F.A.-Applied Arts M.F.A.-Painting M.F.A.-Plastic Arts M.F.A.-Pottery & Ceramics M.F.A.-Textile Design M.Musicology Masters of Corporate Communication Management M.Sc. - Applied Microbiology LL.M. M. Sc. (Ag.) (Master of Science in Agriculture) in 10 disciplines [refer section B(ii) on page 15 of PET Inf. Bul.].

BHU Answer Key 2020

 
BHU Answer Key 2020 - You can check here Answer Keys of Banaras Hindu University (BHU) Undergraduate Entrance Test (UET) & Postgraduate Entrance Test (PET) Entrance Examination held in April - May 2020. Address: Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh 221005

University : Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi

Answer Key : Undergraduate Entrance Test (UET), Postgraduate Entrance Test (PET), School Entrance Test (SET) & more

Answer Key Publish Date : Update soon...

Exam Date : May/June 2020

Contact Address : Banaras Hindu University,Varanasi -221005,U.P.,India

Official Website : www.bhu.ac.in or www.bhuonline.in

STEPS TO CHECK & DOWNLOAD ANSWER KEY ONLINE

STEP1 : First Go to the Official Portal of the BHU University i.e. www.bhuonline.in or www.bhu.ac.in

STEP2 : Follow the “Provisinal Answer Key“.

STEP3 : Select the Set Code Wise Set A , Set B, Set C,Set D.

STEP4 : Save as the PDF & Take Print out of Answer Key 2020.

✓ BHU BA (Hons.) Arts Answer Key 2020

✓BHU B.Ed Answer Key 2020

✓ BHU B.Com (Hons.) Answer Key 2020

✓ BHU LLB Answer Key 2020

✓ BHU B.Sc (Hons.) Biology Answer Key 2020

✓ BHU BA (Hons.) Social Sciences Answer Key 2020

✓ BHU B.Sc (Hons.) Mathematics Answer Key 2020

✓BHU M.Ed Answer Key 2020

UET Answer Keys available for: B. A. (Hons.) Arts, LL.B. (Bachelor of Law), B.Com. (Hons.)/B.Com. (Hons.) Financial, Market Management, B.F.A. (Bachelor of Fine Arts), B.Mus. : Instrumental Flute, B.Mus. : Instrumental Sitar, B.Mus. : Instrumental Tabla, B.Mus. : Instrumental Violin, B.Mus. : Vocal, B.P.A. : Dance - Bharat Natyam, B.P.A. : Dance - Kathak, B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education), B.Sc.(Ag)/B.Sc.(Ag)RGSC, Shastri (Hons.), B. Sc. (Hons.) Maths Group, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education), Humanities and Social Sciences, B. A. (Hons.) Social Sciences, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education), Languages, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education) - Life, Sciences, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education), Mathematics, B.Ed./B.Ed.(Special Education) - Physical, sciences, B. Sc. (Hons.) Bio. Group.
Acharya Dharma Shastra-290-Set

Acharya Jain Darshan -291

Acharya Sukla Yugerved - 281

Achary Sahitya - 286-

Achary Dharmagam - 289

Achary Dharm Shastrya - 290

Achary Vedantaya - 292

Achary Jotish Ganit -287 Set - 1

Achray Sankhya yog - 294

Achray Nayay Vaisanik - 296

Achary Boudhya Darshan - 298

Achary Shukla Yorguerved - 281

Achary Jotish Falit - 288 Set -1

Achary Pourna Etihash - 293

Achary Regveda - 284

Acharya -289-

Achray Vakyaran - 285 Set - M.Sc.(Ag)-Set 340 Set 1

M.Sc. (Ag.) 340 Set 2

M.Tech.Ag.Engg.(Soil & Water Conservation Engg.)-355 Set-1

M.Sc.Tech Geophysics-491

M.Sc.Bioinformatics-493- set1

M.Sc. Health Stats -275 Set 1

M.Tech Ag Engg.355-Set 1

M.Sc.Botony - 485

M.Sc.Plant Biotechnology-356 Set 1

M.Sc.Tech Geophysics 491

M.Sc.Environmental Science - 489 Set - 1

M.Sc.Bioinformatics - 493 Set 1

M.A.-M.Sc. Home Science - 494 Set 1

M.Sc. Applied Microbiology - 488 Set - 1

M.Sc. Biochemistry - 487 Set - 1

M.Sc.Zoology - 484

M.Sc.Chemistry - 482

M.Sc. (Ag.) - 340 Set - 1

M.Sc. Food Science & Technology - 354

M.Sc. Physics - 481

M.A./M.Sc.Psychology -497 Set 1
M.A.- M.Sc. Statistics - 496

LLM HRD -476

LLM-475-Set1

LLM-475-Set2

M.A.Conflict Management & Development - 467 Set - 1

M.A.Prayojanmolak Hindi Patrakarita - 454 Set - 1

M.A. Sanskrit - 446 Set -1

M.A. Pali - 445 Set - 1

M.A.Mass Communication - 452 Set - 1

M.F.A.Applied Arts - 361 Set 1

M.Mus.Instumental - 367,368,369 Set - 1

M.A.Arabic - 431

M.Mus Bharatnatyam - 372

M.F.A.Portery & Cerimony - 363 a

M.A.Persian - 437 Set - 1

M.A.-M.Sc.Geography -498 Set - 1

M.A.Social Work - 463 Set - 1

M.A.Toursiam Managment - 455 Set - 1

M.A.-M.Sc.Mathematics - 495

M.A.Bengali - 439

M.A.History - 460 Set - 1

MA in AIHC & Arch Set 1

M.A.in Linguistics-447-Set1

M.A. Chiness - 432 Set - 1

M.A. Philosophy -451

M.A. Socilogy - 462 Set 1

M.P.Ed.- 457 Set - 1

M.Ed.(Special) 391 Set 1

M.Lib. & Information -456 Set 1

M.A. Telugu -443 Set - 1

M.A.Economics - 466 Set - 1

M.F.A. Textile Degine - 364 Set 1

M.F.A. Painting - 360 Set 1

M.Mus.- Vocal - 366 Set 1

M.Mus. Bhartnatam-176 Set 1

M.F.A.Platic Arts - 362 Set 1

M.A. Hindi - 440 Set 1

M.A.Urdu -444.

M.Musiology-373-Set 1
M.A.French - 434 Set - 1

M.A. Sanskrit - 446 Set -1

M.A. Nepali - 336 Set -1

M.B.A. Agri Bussiness - 381

M.A.English - 433

M.Mus. Tabla - 370 Set - 1

M.Mus. Kathak - 371

M.F.A.Portery & Cerimony - 363

M.Com. - 470 Set - 1

M.Com.- 470 Set - 2

M.A. Mancriptology & Pebograogy -458 Set 1

I.P.R. - 450 Set 1

M.A.History of Arts - 449 Set 1

M.A.Political Science - 461 Set - 1.

M.P.M.I.R - 465 Set - 1

B.Sc.(Math) 181 Set-1

B.Sc. Mathematics - 181 Set - 2

B.Sc.(Bio) 182 Set 1

B.Sc.(Bio) 182 Set 2

B.Mus. Tabla - 174 Set - 1

B.Mus. -Vocal - 177 Set 1

B.Mus. Instumental-171,172.173 Set 1

B.Com. - 133 Set - 3

B.Com. -133 Set 2

B.Com. -133 Set 1

B.A.Arts - 131 Set 1

B.A.Arts - 131 Set 2

B.A.Social - 132 Set - 1

B.A.Social - 132 Set - 2

B.Sc.Ag-135 Set 1

B.Sc.Ag-135 Set 2

B.P.Ed. - 152 Set - 1

B.F.A. - 180 Set- 1

B.Mus. Kathak - 375 Set - 1

LL.B.- 151 Set - 1

LL.B.- 151 Set 2
Acharya Prachin Nyash 295

B.Ed 145 set2

B.Ed 145 set1

B.Ed 145 set3

B.ED 142 set 1

B.ED 142 set 2

B.Ed 144 set1
B.Ed 143 set 1

B.Ed 143 set 2

B.Ed 144 set2

B.Ed 141 set1

B.Ed 141 set2

MA in AICH 448 set 1

MFT and others 385 Set1
M.Ed 390 set2

M.Ed 390 set1

MCA 492 set 2

MCA 492 set 1

MCA 492 set 3

M.Sc(Computer Science)-486-Set 1

M.Sc. in Molecular and Human Genetics

M.Sc(Tech) Env. Sc. & Tech-480-Set 1

MA in Museology 453 set 1

Tuesday, 10 February 2015

BHU PMT Admit Card 2015

 
BHU PMT Admit Card 2015 - All candidates who have applied for Admission to Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) for academic session 2015-16 can download here Admit Card/Hall Ticket for Entrance Examination 2015.

Tentative counselling for admission to UG Courses (MBBS/BDS) will be held on 4th July, 2015. Individual letters to the successful candidates based on their rank in the AIPMT 2015 will be sent by Registered post/Speed Post giving the exact date of counselling. The candidates are advised to check the BHU/IMS website from time to time for updates.

Applicants may get their admit card through the postal address procedure, If not they can download through the procedure mentioned:

♪ Log on to Banaras Hindu University official website www.bhuonline.in

♪ Search and click on BHU PMT Exam Hall Ticket 2015 link

♪ Provide clear information for generating BHU PMT Admit Card 2015

♪ Applicants PMT Cal Letter will be obtained on screen

♪ Download and take print Hall Ticket for BHU PMT Exam

Aspirants are advised to be patience because the Admit cards for BHU PMT examination 2015 will be issued once all the Registration procedure is over. The Admit card is an essential document to be brought on the day of examination otherwise entrant will not be allowed to enter the examination hall. So all the candidates are expected to download their admit card by following the process given below as soon as it is published.

Tuesday, 27 January 2015

BHU PMT Biology Question Papers 2015

 
BHU PMT Biology Question Papers 2015 - All students who have applied for admission to MBBS/BDS through Banaras Hindu University (BHU) Pre Medical Test (PMT) can find here previous year solved Biology (Zoology & Botany) question papers for examination to be held in 2015.

The candidates seeking admission to MBBS/BDS Course 2015 in the Institute of Medical Sciences, BHU must register themselves online in the prescribed application form available on the BHU website (www.bhu.ac.in/ims) alongwith the processing fee. However, the admission will be done on the basis of their merit in the AIPMT – 2015 examination.

Institute of Medical Sciences, Banaras Hindu University which is in its 53rd year of existence is the premier medical institution of this country. Over the last decade, it has been consistently ranked amongst the top 20 Medical Colleges of the country and in 2012 was rated as the 6th best Medical Colleges.

1. Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?

a. Barbus stigma

b. Cyprinus carpio

c. Labeo bata

d. Cirrhinus mrigala

2. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

a. TSH and ACTH

b. Oestrogen and progesterone

c. FSH and LH

d. Vassopressin and oxytocin

3. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is

a. Bombyx mori

b. Antheraea mylitta

c. Antheraea assamensis

d. Philosomia ricini

4. A female Anopheles mosquito can be recognized by

a. Proboscis and palpi are long and more or less of equal length

b. Proboscis long and palpi short

c. Proboscis short and palpi long

d. Both proboscis and palpi are short

5. Cardiac muscles are

a. Striated and voluntary

b. Striated and involuntary

c. Smooth and voluntary

d. Smooth and involuntary

6. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched ?

a. Sycon – Canal system

b. Star fish – Radial symmetry

c. Ascaris – Flame cell

d. Prawn – Haemocoel

7. The anterior V-spot in microfilaria of Wuchereria represents

a. Nerve ring

b. Cervical papilla

c. Excretory System

d. Reproductive system

8. Pyramid of energy in ecosystems is

a. Always upright

b. Always inverted

c. Mostly upright

d. Mostly inverted

9. Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as pentamer ?

a.  IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgE

10. When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called

a. Habitat

b. Niche

c. Ecotone

d. Ecotype1

1. Which one of the following animal phyla does not possess a coelom ?

a. Platyhelminthes

b. Annelida

c. Mollusca

d. Echinodermata

12. What will be the codons in m-RNA if the DNA codes are ATG-CAG ?

a. TAC – GTC

b. UAC – GUC

c. UCA – TUA

d. TCA – GTC

13. If a cross between two individuals produces offsprings with 50% dominant character (A) and 50% recessive character (a) the genotype of parents are

a. Aa × Aa

b. Aa × aa

c. AA × aa

d. AA × Aa

14. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed ?

a. Leptotene

b. Zygotene

c. Pachytene

d. Diplotene

15. The gene of sickle cell anaemia is inherited by

a. Blood cells

b. Bone cells

c. Sex chromosomes

d. Autosomes

16. Which function will be lost due to damage of occipital lobe ?

a. Hearing

b. Speech

c. Vision

d. Memory

17. Structural lipids of cell membrane are

a. Simple lipid

b. Chromolipids

c. Steroid

d. Phospholipids

18. Which one of the following triplet codons is a chain termination codon ?

a. UGU

b. AAU

c. UUG

d. UAG

19. Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as

a. Pepsin

b. Mucus

c. Rennin

d. HCl

20. Meissner’s corpuscles occur is

a. Brain

b. Nerve cells

c. Skin

d. Tongue

21. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by

a. facial nerve

b. trigeminal nerve

c. hypoglossal nerve

d. vagus nerve

22. Which of the following is a gastro intestine hormone ?

a. Prolactin

b. Enterokinase

c. GH

d. FSH

23. Name the following having oxygen storing capacity

a. Myoglobin

b. Actin

c. Myosin

d. Fibrin

24. Calcium level decreases in the blood due to hyposecretion of

a. Parathyroid hormone

b. Calcitonin

c. Thyroxine

d. Adrenaline

25. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

a. Single stranded RNA

b. Double stranded DNA

c. Single stranded DNA

d. Double stranded RNA

26. Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation.

a. LH

b. FSH

c. GH

d. TSH

27. Longest phase of meiosis

a. Prophase I

b. Prophase II

c. Anaphase I

d. Metaphase II

28. Kupffer’s cells are

a. Phagocytic

b. Mast cells

c. Hormone secreting

d. Digestive juice secreting

29. Spindle fibre is made up of

a. humulin

b. intermediate filament

c. flagellin

d. tubulin

30. A plant cell becomes turgid due to

a. Plasmolysis

b. Exosmosis

c. Endosmosis

d. Electrolysis

31. Ovule integument gets transformed into

a. seed

b. fruit wall

c. seed coat

d. cotyledons

32. A flower which can be divided into two equal halves by only one plane is

a. Zygomorphic

b. Actinomorphic

c. Regular

d. Perfect

33. Structure element of Chromatin is

a. Histone

b. Acid protein and DNA

c. Nuclear matrix

d. Nucleosomes

34. Electrons used in Electron Microscope are of the wavelength

a. 0.05 Å

b. 0.15 Å

c. 0.25 Å

d. 0.30 Å

35. Acid rain is caused by

a. NO2

b. SO2

c. SO3

d. CO2

36. Pieces of plant tissue used in tissue culture is called

a. Explant

b. Somaclone

c. Inoculant

d. Clone

37. Inulin is a polymer of

a. Glucose

b. Galactose

c. Fructose

d. Arabinose

38. Biolistic technique is used in

a. Tissue culture process

b. Gene transfer process

c. Hybridization process

d. Germplasm conservation process

39. Polyploid derived from two different species is called

a. Autopolyploid

b. Triploid

c. Allopolyploid

d. Monoploid

40. What is a genophore ?

a. DNA in prokaryotes

b. DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

c. DNA and protein in prokaryotes

d. RNA in prokaryotes

41. When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is

a. Dyspnea

b. Hypoxia

c. Asphyxia

d. Apnea

42. The reflex arc, which is made of two neurons is known as

a. Monosynsptic reflex arc

b. Disynaptic reflex arc

c. Polysynaptic reflex arc

d. Asynaptic reflex arc

43. The cause of cretinism is

a. Hypothyroidism

b. Hypoparathyroidism

c. Hyperthyroidism

d. Hyperparathyroidism

44. Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is

a. Ligin

b. Suberin

c. Inulin

d. Starch

45. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?

a. Calcium

b. Sodium

c. cAMP

d. cGMP

46. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid ?

a. Testosterone

b. Progesterone

c. Adrenalin

d. Aldosterone

47. The Gastrin is secreted from

a. Intestine

b. Stomach

c. Pancreas

d. Rectum

48. Electric potential of the brain is recorded by

a. CT Scan

b. Sphygmomanometer

c. ECG

d. EEG

49. ACTH is secreted from

a. Adrenal cortex

b. Pituitary

c. Adrenal Medulla

d. Thyroid

50. Fertilization occur in

a. Uterus

b. Ureter

c. Vagina D

d. Fallopian tube

(Biology) Answer Key

1)    b

2)    c

3)    b

4)    a

5)    b

6)    c

7)    c

8)    a

9)    b

10) c

11) a

12) b

13) b

14) c

15) d

16) c

17) d

18) d

19) d

20) c

21) c

22) b

23) a

24) a

25) b

26) d

27) a

28) a

29) d

30) c

31) c

32) a

33) d

34) a

35) b

36) a

37) c

38) b

39) c

40) a

41) b

42) a

43) a

44) d

45) b

46) d

47) b

48) d

49) b

50) d

BHU PMT Chemistry Question Papers 2015

 
BHU PMT Chemistry Question Papers 2015 - All students who have applied for admission to MBBS/BDS through Banaras Hindu University (BHU) Pre Medical Test (PMT) can find here previous year solved Chemistry question papers for examination to be held in 2015.

The candidates seeking admission to MBBS/BDS Course 2015 in the Institute of Medical Sciences, BHU must register themselves online in the prescribed application form available on the BHU website (www.bhu.ac.in/ims) alongwith the processing fee. However, the admission will be done on the basis of their merit in the AIPMT – 2015 examination.

Institute of Medical Sciences, Banaras Hindu University which is in its 53rd year of existence is the premier medical institution of this country. Over the last decade, it has been consistently ranked amongst the top 20 Medical Colleges of the country and in 2012 was rated as the 6th best Medical Colleges.

1. The hybridization state of C atom in butendioic acid is :
          (1) sp2

(2) sp3

(3) both two
(4) sp

2. Which of the following is not a isomer of pentane : (1) n-pentane

(2) 2, 2-dimethy 1 propane

(3) 2, 3-dimethy 1 butane

(4) 2-methy 1 butane

3. The oxidation number of C atom in Ch2CI2 and CCI4 are respectively : (1) -2 and – 4

(2) 0 and – 4 (3) 0 and 4

(4) 2 and 4

4. Which of the following dissolves in lonic solvents : (1) C6H5 (2)

CH3OH (3)

CCI4 (4)

C5H12

5. The conjugate acid of HS is :

(1) S-2 (2)

H2S2

(3) both two (4) none

6. Phenolphthalein of pH range [8-10] is used in which of the following type of titration as a suitable indicator :

(1) NH4OH and HCI

(2) NH4OH and HCOOH

(3) NH4OH and C2H4O2

(4) NaOH and C2O4H2

7. Which of the following is iron are :

(1) Malachite

(2) Hernatite (3) Siderite

(4) Limonite

8. The molar concentration of chloride ions in the resulting solution of 300

ml.of 3.0 M NaCI and 200 ml. of 4.0 M BaCl2 will be : (1) 1.7 M

(2) 1.8 M

(3) 5.0 M

(4) 3.5 M

9. Which of the following has least bond energy : (1) N -2

-

+

2 (2)

N2

(3) N2

(4) N2

10. Which of the following species has highest bond energy : (1) O -2

+

-

2 (2)

O2

(3) O2 (4)

O2

11. Which of the following compound is not aromatic : (1) 1, 3-cyclobutene

(2) pyridine

(3) furane

(4) thiophene

12. Which of the following compound is used as refrigerant : (1) CCI2F2

(2) CCI4

(3) CF4

(4) Acetone

13. Which of the following is weak acid :

(1) C6H6 (2)

CH3-C≡CH (3)

CH2=CH2 (4) CH3-C≡C-CH3

14. L.P.G. mainly consist of the following :

(1) Methane (2) Hydrogen (3) Acetylene

(4) Butane

15. The solubility product of CaCo3 is 5 x 10-9. The solubility will be : (1) 2.5 x 10-5

(2) 7 x 10-5

(3) 2.5 x 10-4

(4) 2.2 x 10-9

16. The outer electronic configuration of alkali earth metals is : (1) nd10 (2)

ns1

(3) np6

(4) ns2

17. The nature of 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol is :

(1) Neutral

(2) Basic

(3) Acidic

(4) Weak basic

18. Which of the following group is sharp ortho and para directive : (1) –C6H5 (2)-OH

(3)

–CH3 (4)

–CI

19. By which of the following process hydrocarbons are found from petroleum : (1) combustion

(2) fractional distillation

(3) addition

(4) all above

20. A sample of petroleum contains 30% n-heptane, 10% 2-methyl hexane and 60% 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane, the octane no. of this sample will be : (1) 30%

(2) 60%

(3) 10%

(4) 70%

21. In which of the following halogens p-electrons does not take part in resonance :

(1) CH2=CH-CH2Cl

(2)

BrC6H5

(3) C6H5Cl

(4)

CH2=CHCl

22. Which of the following statement is false :

(1) 40% solution HCHO is known as formalin

(2) HCHO is least reactive in its homologous series

(3) The B.P. of isovarelaldehyde is less than n-varelaldehyde (4) The boiling point of ketones are higher than that of aldehydes 23. If n + ιι = 8 then the expected no. of orbitals will be : (1) 4

(2) 9

(3) 16

(4) 25

 Alc. KOH 2Cl2 Ca(OH)2

24. A B C here the compound C will be : (1) Lewsite

(2) Westron

(3) Acetylene tetra chloride (4) Both 2 and 3

25. Which of the following is least hydrolysed :

(1) BeCl2 (2)

MgCl2 (3)

CaCl2 (3)

BaCl2

26. The laughing gas is :

(1) N2O4

(2) NO

(3) N2O (4)

N2O5

27. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 3.98 x 10-6 mole per liter. The pH value of this solution will be :

(1) 6.0

(2) 5.8

(3) 5.4

(4) 5.9

28. The reaction of sodium acetate and sodalime gives : (1) Butane

(2) Ethane

(3) Methane (4) Propane

29. Which of the following acids does not contain – COOH group : (1) Carbamic acid

(2) Barbituric acid

(3) Lactic acid

(4) succinnic acid

30. Which of the following compound of xenone does not exists : (1) XeF6 (2)

XeF4 (4)

XeF5 (4)

XeF2

31. FeSO4, 7H2O is :

(1) Mohr’s salt (2) Blue vitriol

(3) Green vitriol (4) White vitriol

32. The solution of BiCl3 in dil. HCI when diluted with water white precipitate is formed which is :

(1) Bismith oxychloride

(2) Bismith oxide

(3) Bismith hydroxide

(3) none of these

33. The strongest acid is :

(1) acetic acid

(2) trichloroacetic acid

(3) dichloracetic acid

(4) monochloroacetic acid

34. The false statement regarding alkane is :

(1) This does not perform polymerization reaction

(2) This does not gives elimination reaction

(3) It does not disappear the colour of dilute KMnO4 solution (4) It does not decolourise bromine water

35. Which of the following is strongest base :

(1) C6H5NH2

(2)

CH3NH2

(3) NH3 (4)

CH3CONH2

36. Which of the following aromatic compound gives sulphonation reaction very easily :

(1) Chlorobenzene (2) Nitrobenzene

(3) Toluene

(4) benzene

37. The geometry of I3- is :

(1) Triangular

(2) Linear

(3) Tetrahedral

(4) T-shape

38. The half life of a radio active element is 140 days. 1 gm. of this element after 560 days will become :

(1) 1 gm (2) 1 gm

(3) 1gm.

(4) 1 gm.

16 4 8 2

39. The volume concentration of hydrogen peroxide 6.8% concentration will be : (1) 5

(2) 11.2

(3) 22.4

(4) 20

40. Which of the following on combustion give maximum energy : (1) Ethane

(2) Propane

(3) Methane (4) Butane

 Anhy. AICI3

41. C6H6 + CH3CI C6H5CH3 + HCI The name of above reaction is : (1) Gattermann

(2) Reimer-tiemann

(3) Friedel-Craft

(4) Cannizaro

42. The oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is :

(1) + 4

(2) + 3

(3) + 6

(4) + 5

43. The natural rubber is the polymer of :

(1) 1, 3- butadiene

(2) polyamide (3) isoprene (4) none of these

44. Nylone-66 is a :

(1) polyester (2) polyamide

(3) polyacrylate

(4) none of these

45. 2NO(g) + CI2 (g) →→

 2 NOCI The equilibrium constant for this reaction is :

←

←



(1)

Kc = [NOCI]2

(2) Kc = [NOCI]2___

[NO]2[CI2}2 [2NO]2[CI2]

(3) Kc = [NOCI]2 __ (4)

Kc = [2NOCI]____

[NO]2 [CI2] [2NO][CI]

 A

46.  C6H6 + CO + HCI C6H5CHO + HCI here A is : (1) anhydrans ZnO

(2) V2O5/4500 C

(3) anhydrous AICO3 (4) solid KOH

47. The values of for HCN and CH3COOH are 7.2 x 10-10 and 1.75 x 10-5 (at 250

C) respectively. The strongest acid amongst them is : (1) CH3COOH (2) HCN

(3) both

(4) none of these

48. In which of the following carbon atom (asterisk) is asymmetric : (1) CH3CH2CH (CH3) CH2OH

(2) CH3CH2CH (CH3) CHOH

(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

(4) CH3CH2CH (CH3)CH2OH

49. Benzene reacts with CH3COCI in presence of Lewis acid AICI3 to form : (1) Acetophenone

(2) Toluene

(3) Benzyl Chloride (4) Chlorobenzene

50. Which of the following is reducing agent :

(1) H2S (2)

HNO3 (3)

H2O (4)

K2Cr2O7

51. In which of the following alkyl chloride the possibility of SN1 reaction mechanism is maximum :

(1) (CH3)2CHCI (2)

(CH3)3C-CI (3)

CH3CI (4)

CH3CH2CI

52. The energy produced realated to mass decay of 0.02 amu is : (1) 28.2 MeV

(2) 931 MeV (3) 18.62 MeV

(4) none of these

53. The mole of hydrogen ion in 50 ml. of 0.1 M HCI solution will be : (1) 5 x 102

(2) 5 x 10-3

(3) 5 x 103

(4) 5 x 10-2

54. Petroleum is mainly consist of :

(1) Aliphatic alcohol

(2) Aromatic hydrocarbon

(3) Alipnetic hydrocarbon

(4) None of these

 ∆∆



55.  C6H6OCH3 + HI …….. + ……….. The products in the above reaction will be :

(1)

C6H5I+CH3OH

(2)

C6H5CH3+HOI

(3)

C6H5OH+CH3I

(4)

C6H6+CH3OI

56 F3 is :

(1) Bronsted base

(2) Lewis base (3) Lewis acid (4) Bronsted acid

57.  Which of the following compound gives violet colour with FeCI3 solution: (1) Benzaldehyde

(2) Aniline

(3) Nitrobenzene

(4) Phenol

58.  Hypo solution forms which of the following complex compound with AgCI : (1)

Na5[Ag(S2O3)3]

(2)

Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]

(3)

Na2{Ag(S2O3)2]

(4)

Na3[Ag(S2O3)3]

59. Molecular oxygen is :

(1) ferro magnetic

(2) diamagnetic

(3) para magnetic

(4) non magnetic

60. Bonds in acetylene are :

(1)

2π bonds (2) one π bond

(3) 3π bonds (4) none of these

61. The false statement for Griynaed reagent is :

(1) It gives tertiary alcohol with acetamide

(2) It gives tertiary alcohol with acetone

(3) It gives secondary alcohol with acetaldehyde

(4) It gives primary alcohol with formaldehyde

62. Which of the following alkane exists is liquid state at normal temperature : (1)

C20H42 (2)

C3H8 (3)

C8H18 (4)

CH4

63. The solubility of AgCI at 250 C will be maximum in : (1) Potassium chloride solution

(2)

AgNO3 solution

(3)

Water

(4) All above

64. The weight of a benzene molecule is :

(1) 78 gm.

(2) 7.8 gm.

(3) 13 x 10-23

(4) none of these

65. CuFeS2 is :

(1) iorn pyrites

(2) malachite (3) chalcosite (4) chalcopyrites

66. Primary halides follow the following reaction mechanism : (1)

SN1 (2)

SN2

(3) both

(4) none of these

67. C and Si belong to the same group of periodic table, CO2 is a gas and SiO2 is a : (1) liquid

(2) gas

(3) solid

(4) none of these

68. H2S is a gas while H2O is a liquid because :

(1) there is association due to hydrogen bonding

(2) bond energy of OH high

(3) the ionization potential of oxygen is high

(4) the electro negativity of oxygen is high

69. “The negative part of the molecule adding to the double bond goes to that unsaturated asymmetric carbon atom which is linked to the least number of hydrogen atoms.” This statement is related to :

(1) Markownikoff’s law

(2) Peroxide effect

(3) Bayer’s law of distortion

(4) none of these

70. The conjugate base of NH3 is :

(1)

N

-

+

+

2H4 (2)

NH2 (3)

NH4 (4)

NH2

71. (a) N

π

σ

2 and (b) C2H2. The nos. of ππ

 and σ

 bond in the molecules are respectively :

(1) (a) 2,2 (b) 2,2

(2) (a) 1,2 (b) 2,1

(3) (a) 2,1 (b) 2,3

(4) (a) 2,1 (b) 2,1

72. In which of the following compound there are maximum no. of sp2 hybrid C

atoms:

(1)

Benzene

(2)

1,3,5-hexatriene

(2) 1,2,4-hexatriene (4) both 1 and 2

73. The shape of the molecule having hybrid orbitals of 20% character will be : (1) octahedral

(2) tetrahedral

(3) square planer

(4) triangular bipyramidal

74. The pH of a solution is 5. If the dilution of this solution is increased by 100 times, the pH value will be :

(1) 5

(2) 7

(3) 9

(4) 8

75. The required amount of oxygen for combustion of 20 ml. of gaseous hydrocarbon is 50 ml. The hydrocarbon will be :

(1)

C2H2 (2)

C2H4 (3)

C2H6 (4)

C3H4

76. The formula of Celestine is :

(1) SrSO4 (2)

SrCO3

(3) SrO

(4) SrCl2

77. CuCl

→

2 +

→

 Cu + Cl2. The required amount of electricity for this reaction is : (1) 4 faraday

(2) 2 faraday (3) 1 faraday (4) 3 faraday

78. Nitrogen does not forms NF5 because :

(1) The bondenergy of N≡N is very high

(2) Vaccent d-orbitals are not present

(3) N belongs to V group

(4) There is inert effect

79. The normal temperature when raised by 100 C, the rate of reaction will be : (1) lowered by 2 times

(2) increased by 2 times

(3) lowered by 10 times

(4) increased by 10 times

80. Which of the following gives red precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride :

(1) Propane (2) Ethane

(3) Methane (4) Acetylene

81. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ snows the following hybridization : (1) dsp2 (2)

sp3d (3)

dsp3 (4)

sp3

82. A solution contains CI-, I- and S O 3-

4 ions in it. Which of the following ion is

capable to precipitate all of above when added in this solution : (1) Pb2+ (2)

Ba2+ (3)

Hg2+ (4)

Cu2+

83. Fool’s gold is :

(1) Cu2S (2)

FeS2 (3)

Al2O5 (4)

CuFeS2

84. In which of the following compound the central atom is in sp2 hybrid state : (1) OF

+

2 (2)

HgCl2 (3)

XeF2 (4)

NH2

85. The number of alkenyl groups possible from C

-

4H7 are :

(1)

7

(2) 5

(3) 3

(4) 8

86. The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol is works as : (1) Cooling agent

(2) Anti knocking agent

(3) Bleaching agent

(4) None of these

87. The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as : (1) dehydrogenation (2) dehydration (3) esterification (4) saponification

88. The degree of ionization of 0.4 M acetic acid will be : (Ka = 1.8 x 10-5) (1) 6.71 x 10-3 (2)

1.6x10-3

(3) 0.4x1.8x10-5 (4)

1.8x10-5

89. Haber process is used for production of which of the following : (1) NH3 (2)

HNO3 (3)

H2SO4 (4)

O3

90. The pka value of phenolphthalein is 9.1 and the pH range is 8-10. In which of the following titrations it can be used as an indicator : (1) NH4OHand HCI

(2) NH4OH and CH3COOH

(3) NaOH and HCI

(4) NH4OH

91. Number of electrons in a one molecule of CO2 : (1) pb2+ (2)

Hg2+ (3)

Ba2+ (4)

Cu2+

92. Which of the following species shows the maximum magnetic moment : (1) Mn+6 (2)

Ni2+ (3)

Fe3+ (4)

Ag+

93. K sp value of CaF2 is 3.75 x 1011 The solubility will be :

(1) 1.45x10-11 mol/litre-1

(2) 3.45x10-4 mol/liter-1

(3) 2.05x10-4 mol/liter-1

(4) 3.75 x 10-11 mol/liter-1

94. When Pb3O4 is heated with dilute H N O3 it gives : (1) pbO2 and pb(NO3)2

(2) pbO and pb(NO3)2

(3) pbO2

(4) pbO

95. C-H bond length is least in :

(1) Acetylene (2) Methane (3) Ethylene (4) Ethane

96. The minimum nos. of carbon atoms in ketones which will show chain isomerism will be :

(1) Seven

(2) four

(3) six

(4) five

97. Which of the following organic compound could not be dried by anhydrous CaCI2 :

(1) ethanol

(2) benzene

(3) chloroform

(4) ethyl acetate

98. Which of the following compound forms white precipitate with bromine water :

(1) Nitrobenzene

(2) Phenol

(3) Benzene

(4) all above

99. Gypsum is :

(1) CaSO4.H2O (2)

CaSO4. 2H2O

(3) 2CaSO4. 2H2O (4)

CaSO4

100.Which of the following carbonium ion is most stable :

+ +

(1) CH3-CCH3 (2)

CH3CH2

CH3

+ +

(3) CH30CH-CH3 (4)

CH3

ANSWER SHEET

1.(2) 2.(3) 3.(3) 4.(2) 5.(2) 6.(4) 7.(1) 8.(3) 9.(1) 10.(4) 11.(1)

12.(1) 13.(2) 14.(4) 15.(2) 16.(4)

17.(3)

18.(2)

19.(2)

20.(2) 21.(1) 22.(2)

23.(3) 24.(4) 25.(4) 26.(3) 27.(3)

28.(3)

29.(2)

30.(3)

31.(3) 32.(1) 33.(2)

34.(3) 35.(2) 36.(3) 37.(2) 38.(1)

39.(4)

40.(4)

41.(3)

42(3) 43.(3) 44.(2)

45.(3) 46.(3) 47.(1) 48.(1) 49.(1)

50.(1)

51.(2)

52.(1)

53.(2) 54.(3) 55.(3)

56.(3) 57.(4) 58.(3) 59.(3) 60.(1)

61.(1)

62.(3)

63.(3)

64.(3) 65.(4) 66.(1)

67.(3) 68.(1) 69.(1) 70.(2) 71.(3)

72.(4)

73.(4)

74.(2)

75.(1) 76.(2) 77.(2)

78.(2) 79.(2) 80.(4) 81.(1) 82.(1)

83.(2)

84.(4)

85.(4)

86.(2) 87.(4) 88.(1)

89.(1) 90.(3) 91.(1) 92.(3) 93.(3)

94.(1)

95.(1)

96.(4)

97.(1) 98.(2) 99.(2)

100.(1)

1. A body of mass 20 gm moving at 200 m/sec passes through a plank and its velocity reduces to 100 m/ sec. In passing through the plank, what part of its K.E. is lost:

a. 1/4

b. 1/2

c. 3/4

d. 2/3

2. The tension in the string revolving in a vertical circle with a mass m at the end which is at the lowest position

a. mv2/r

b. (mv2/r)- mg

c. (mv2/r)+ mg

d. mg

3. A bomb of mass 12 kg explodes into two pieces of mases 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of mass 8 kg is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of mass 4 kg will be :

a. 48 joule

b. 32 joule

c. 24 joule

d. 288 joule

4. A block of mass M slides along the sides of a flat bottomed bowl. The slides of the bowl are frictionless and the base has a coefficient of friction 0.2. If the block is released from the top of the side which is 1.5 m high, where will the block come to rest. Given, the length of the base is 15 m:

a. 1 m from P

b. Mid point of flat part PQ

c. 2 m from P

d. at Q

5. The power of a pump, which can pump 200 kg of water to a height of 200 m in 10 sec is (g=10 m/s2):

a. 40 kW

b. 80 kW

c. 400 kW

d. 960 kW

6. A long spiral sprig is stretched by 2 cm, its P.E. is U. If the srping is stretched by 10 cm, then the P.E. of the spring is :

a. U/ 25

b. U / 5

c. 5 U

d. 25U

7. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and k2 (k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same force:

a. No work is done in case of both the springs

b. Equal work is doen in case of both the springs

c. More work is done in case of second spring

d. More work is done in case of first spring

8. A monkey sits on the pan of spring scale kept in an elevator. The reading of the spring scale will be maximum when :

a. The elevator is stationary

b. The elevator cable breaks and it falls freely towards earth

c. The elevator accelerates downwards

d. The elevator accelerates upwards

9. Friction force is

a. self adjustable

b. not self adjustable

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of these

10. A body of mass 2 kg is hung on a spring balance mounted vertically in a lift. If the lift moves up with a constant velocity of 2 m/sec, the reading on the balance wil be

a. 2 kg

b. 4 kg

c. Zero

d. 1 kg

11. A boy of 50 kg is standing in a lift moving down with an acceleration 9.8 m/s2. The apparanet weight of the boy is

a. zero

b. 50N

c. 50×9.8N

d. 50/9.8 N

13. Maximum value of force of friction is called

a. limiting friction

b. rolling friction

c. normal friction

d. kinetic friction

14. The linear momentum p of a body moving in one dimension varies with time according to the equation p = a+bt2 where a and b are positive constants. The net force acting on the body is:

a. proportional to t2

b. a constant

c. proportional to t

d. inversely proportional to t

15. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown on a frinctionless table. They are pulled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg, and m3 = 4 kg, the tension T2 will be:

a. 20N

b. 40 N

c. 10 N

d. 32 N

16. A box is lying on an inclined plane. If the box starts sliding when the angle of inclination is 60°, then the coefficient of static friction of the box and plane is

a. 2.732

b. 1.732

c. 0.267

d. 0.176

17. A machine gun shoots a 40 g bullet at a speed of 1200 m/s. The man operating the gun can exert and average force of 144 N at the most. How many bullets (maximum number) can be shot per sec?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 6

18. A body of mass 50 kg is pulled by a rope of length 6 m on a frictionless surface by a fore of 106 N applied to the other end. The linear density of the rope is 0.5 kg/m. The force acting on 50 kg mass is

a. 50 N

b. 100 N

c. 150 N

d. 200 N

19. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 ms–1 to 3.5 ms–1 in 25 seconds. The direction of motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude of force?

a. 0.09 N

b. 0.045 N

c. 0.18 N

d. None of these

20. The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 N-s momentum is 1000 N. The time required is

a. 25 s

b. 2.5 × 104 s

c. 0.25 s

d. 0.025 s

21. A man of mass 60 kg is standing on a spring balance inside a lift. If the lift falls freely downwards, then the reading of the spring balance will be

a. 60 kgf

b. More than 60 kgf

c. Less than 60 kgf

d. Zero

22. When a wagon is pulled by a horse, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force

a. He exerts on the wagon

b. The wagon exerts on him

c. The ground exerts on him

d. He exerts on the ground

23. A machine gun fires 10 bullet/s, each of mass 10 g, the speed of each bullet is 20 cm/s, then force of recoil is

a. 200 dyne

b. 2000 dyne

c. 20 dyne

d. none of these

24. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale reading is

a. Both the scales read M kg each

b. The scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero

c. The reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg

d. Both the scales read M/2 kg

25. A 40 N block is supported by two ropes. One rope is horizontal and the other makes an angle of 30° with the ceiling. The tension in the rope attached to the ceiling is approximately

a. 80 N

b. 40 N

d. 34.6 N

d. 46.2 N

26. Phenolphthalein of pH range [8-10] is used in which of the following type of titration as a suitable indicator :

a. NH4OH and HCI

b. NH4OH and HCOOH

c. NH4OH and C2H4O2

d. NaOH and C2O4H2

27. The oxidation number of C atom in Ch2CI2 and CCI4 are respectively :

a. -2 and – 4

b. 0 and – 4

c. 0 and 4

d. 2 and 4

28. Which of the following compound is not aromatic :

(1) 1, 3-cyclobutene

(2) pyridine

(3) furane

(4) thiophene

29. L.P.G. mainly consist of the following :

a. Methane

b. Hydrogen

c. Acetylene

d. Butane

30. A sample of petroleum contains 30% n-heptane, 10% 2-methyl hexane and 60% 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane, the octane no. of this sample will be :

a. 30%

b. 60%

c. 10%

d. 70%

31. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 3.98 x 10-6 mole per liter. The pH value of this solution will be :

a. 6.0

b. 5.8

c. 5.4

d. 5.9

32. Which of the following acids does not contain – COOH group :

a. Carbamic acid

b. Barbituric acid

c. Lactic acid

d. succinnic acid

33. The solution of BiCl3 in dil. HCI when diluted with water white precipitate is formed which is :

a. Bismith oxychloride

b. Bismith oxide

c. Bismith hydroxide

d. none of these

34. Which of the following aromatic compound gives sulphonation reaction very easily :

a. Chlorobenzene

b. Nitrobenzene

c. Toluene

d. benzene

35. The natural rubber is the polymer of :

a. 1, 3- butadiene

b. polyamide

c. isoprene

d. none of these

36. The volume concentration of hydrogen peroxide 6.8% concentration will be :

a. 5

b. 11.2

c. 22.4

d. 20

37. Benzene reacts with CH3COCI in presence of Lewis acid AICI3 to form :

a. Acetophenone

b. Toluene

c. Benzyl Chloride

d. Chlorobenzene

38. The mole of hydrogen ion in 50 ml. of 0.1 M HCI solution will be :

a. 5 x 102

b. 5 x 10-3

c. 5 x 103

d. 5 x 10-2

39. F3 is :

a. Bronsted base

b. Lewis base

c. Lewis acid

d. Bronsted acid

40. The false statement for Griynaed reagent is :

a. It gives tertiary alcohol with acetamide

b. It gives tertiary alcohol with acetone

c. It gives secondary alcohol with acetaldehyde

d. It gives primary alcohol with formaldehyde

41. Primary halides follow the following reaction mechanism :

a. SN1

b. SN2

c. both

d. none of these

42. “The negative part of the molecule adding to the double bond goes to that unsaturated asymmetric carbon atom which is linked to the least number of hydrogen atoms.” This statement is related to :

a. Markownikoff’s law

b. Peroxide effect

c. Bayer’s law of distortion

d. none of these

43. The shape of the molecule having hybrid orbitals of 20% character will be :

a. octahedral

b. tetrahedral

c. square planer

d. triangular bipyramidal

44. Which of the following gives red precipitate with ammonical cuprous chloride :

a. Propane

b. Ethane

c. Methane

d. Acetylene

45. The pH of a solution is 5. If the dilution of this solution is increased by 100 times, the pH value will be :

a. 5

b. 7

c. 9

d. 8

46. The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol is works as :

a. Cooling agent

b. Anti knocking agent

c. Bleaching agent

d. None of these

47. Fool’s gold is :

a. Cu2S

b. FeS2

c. Al2O5

d. CuFeS2

48. The alkaline hydrolysis of ester is known as :

a. dehydrogenation

b. dehydration

c. esterification

d. saponification

49. C-H bond length is least in :

a. Acetylene

b. Methane

c. Ethylene

d. Ethane

50. Which of the following compound forms white precipitate with bromine water :

a. Nitrobenzene

b. Phenol

c. Benzene

d. all above